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J.S.fiorgas,A.M„ M..B.. D. D. S. 









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Questions and Answers 



Consisting of Three Parts : 

Part I. — Pertaining to the Freshman Course. 
Part II. — Pertaining to the Junior Course. 
Part III. — Pertaining to the Senior Course. 




Snowden & Cowman, Publishers, 

Dental Depot, 

9 West Fayette Street. 



L V 


. Qr tj>-7 

Contents of Part II. 


Anatomy, ------- . . . ^ 

Physiology, 28 

Materia Medica and Therapeutics, - - - - - - 36 

Chemistry, 47 

Dental Patholcgy, - - 62 

Operative Dentistry, 73 

Prosthetic Dentistry, - 78 

Vulcanite, .......... S4 

Celluloid, 87 

Entered according to Act of Congress, in the year 1S92, by 


In the Office of the Librarian of Congress, at Washington, D. C, U. S. A. 

All rights reserved. 



Question. What are the nutritive fluids of the body. 

Answer. Lymph, chyle, and blood. 

Q. What is the nature of the Blood. 

A. A thick opaque fluid; of a bright red color from the arteries, and dark 
red or purple from the veins ; saltish to the taste, viscid and of a peculiar 
faint odor and an alkaline reaction. 

Q. When allowed to stand after being drawn what is its appearance. 

A. Soon solidifies into a jelly-like mass, after which drops of a transparent 
yellowish fluid ooze from the surface and collect around it. 

Q. What occurs to this mass in about 24 hours. 

A . It separates into two parts — clot or coagulum and serum . 

Q. What is Clot. 

A. It consists of a solid, colorless material, known as fibrin, and many 
minute cells or corpuscles, known as blood-corpuscles. 

Q. When is the Fibrin formed. 

A. During the act of solidification. 

Q. What are the Blood-Corpuscles enclosed in. 

A. In the fibrin, and thus the clot is formed. 

Q. What is seen in a drop of blood by means of the microscope. 

A. A number of minute bodies or corpuscles floating in a clear fluid. 

Q. What two varieties of corpuscles does the blood hold in suspension. 

A. The red or colored and the white or colorless. 

Q. What is the clear fluid in which these corpuscles float called. 

A. The liquor sanguinis or plasma. 

Q. How does the liquor sanguinis differ from the serum. 

A. It contains one at least of the elements from which fibrin is formed. 

Q. Describe the Red or Colored Corpuscles. 

A. Circular disks with a slight central concave depression having a raised 
border ; of a faint reddish-yellow in arterial blood, and a greenish-yellow in 
venous blood ; highly elastic. 

Q. What is their size. 

A. It varies, but their average diameter is 1-3200 of an inch, and their thick- 
ness 1-12000 of an inch. 

Q. Describe the White or Colorless Corpuscles. 

A. In human blood, larger than the red, rounder or spheroidal ; they are 
a type of a true animal cell, and consist of a mass of transparent albumin- 
ous substance called protoplasm, containing one or more nuclei, and bright 
granules of a fatty nature ; the white corpuscles are similar to those of lymph 
and chyle. 

Q. What is the diameter of the white corpuscles. 

A. 1-2000 to 1-2500 of an inch in diameter. 

Q. What are Blood-plaques or Blood-plates. 

A. A third corpuscle in the blood sometimes called haematoblasts ; colorless 

protoplasmic disks in the ratio of one to 18 or 20 red corpuscles, finely granu- 
lar and without a nucleus. 

Q. What do they bear an important relation to. 

A. Coagulation of the blood, especially in the formation of thrombi. 

Q. "What is the Liquor Sunguinis or Plasma. 

A. The fluid part of the blood composed of serum and fibrin elements which 
unite when out of the body and form the fibrin in connection with a fibrin 

Q. What are the two Fibrin Elements. 

A. Fibrinogen and Fibrino-plastin or Paraglobulin. 

Q. What is the appearance of Fibrin when fresh blood is filtered. 

A. A white or buff -colored substance of a stringy appearance. 

Q. What is Serum. 

A. The fluid liquor sanguinis after the fibrin elements have separated from 
it; straw-colored, with an alkaline reaction ; it contains salts, fatty-matters, 
sugar, and gases. 

Q. What are the Gases of the Blood. 

A. Carbonic acid, oxygen, and nitrogen. 

Q. What are Blood Crystals. 

A. Haemoglobin separated from the blood undergoing crystallization called 
haemoglobin crystals ; elongated prisms. 

Q. What is Lymph. 

A. A transparent, colorless, or slightly yellow watery fluid, conveyed by a 
system of vessels, called lymphatics, into the blood. 

Q. What is Chyle. 

A. An opaque, milky white fluid, absorbed by the villi of the small intes- 
tines from the food and carried by vessels called lacteals to the beginning of 
the thoracic duct, where it mixes with the lymph and is carried into the circu- 
lation by the same channels. 

Q. What is Connective Tissue. 

A. Tissues which support and connect the principal tissues of the body. 

Q. Into what three groups are Connective Tissues divided. 

A, Into Fibrous Connective Tissues, Cartilage, and Bone. 

Q. What three forms of Fibrous Connective Tissue. 

A. White, Yellow Elastic, and Areolar. 

Q. What is White Fibrous Tissue. 

A. It binds bones together in form of Ligaments ; it connects muscles to 
bones or other structures in form of Tendons ; and invests or protects various 
organs in form of Membranes. 

Q. What is the nature of Yellow Elastic Tissue. 

A. Elastic to such a degree that the white fibrous element is excluded ; found 
in the vocal cords, trachea and bronchi, coats of blood vessels, and in certain 

Q. What is Areolar Tissue. 

A. Tissue in which the meshes are easily distended, and thus separated into 
areolae or spaces, which communicate freely and are easily permeated by 
fluid, or inflated by air. 

Q. What is Adipose Tissue. 

A. Areolar Tissue whose areolae or spaces are occupied by fat-cells. 

Q. What is Cartilage. 

A. A non-vascular structure found in joints, thorax, air-passages, nostrils, 
«ars, etc. 

Q. What is cartilage which is afterwards replaced by bone, called. 

A. Temporary Cartilage, which in the foetus, forms the greater part of the 

Q. What is the nature of Cartilage. 

A. A gristly mass of firm consistence, elastic, and of a pearly-bluish color. 

Q. What is the Color of Bone in its fresh state. 

A. Pinkish-white externally and deep red within. 

Q. Of what two kinds of tissue is Bone composed. 

A. Dense and compact on exterior of the bone, and cancellous on the interior. 

Q. What is the nature of the Compact Tissue. 

A. Like ivory, but extremely porous. 

Q. What is the nature of the Cancellous Tissue. 

A. Consists of slender fibres and lamellae which unite to form a reticular 
structure, which resembles lattice-work. 

Q. What is the difference in structure between the Compact and Cancellous 

A. The different amount of solid matter and the size and number of spaces 
in each. 

Q. How do the nutrient vessels reach bone tissue. 

A. By means of the fibrous membrane in which bone is enclosed called the 

Q. What occupies the interior of the bones of the limbs. 

A. The Marrow, of a yellow color, consisting of fat, fluid, areolar tissue and 

Q. What lines the interior of the cylindrical cavities of bone. 

A. Medullary membrane, or Internal Periosteum. 

Q. What is the relation of the periosteum to bone. 

A. Adheres to surface of the bones in nearly every part, except at their 
cartilaginous extremities ; it forms part of the strong ligaments or tendons 
attached to bone. 

Q. Describe the Periosteum. 

A. Consists of two layers closely joined, the outer formed of connective tissue 
with a few fat cells; the inner of elastic fibres, forming dense membranous 
networks ; in the young it is very vascular and thick ; in the old, thinner and 
less vascular. 

Q. What is the source of the blood-vessels of the compact tissue of bone. 

A. From the periosteum, the vessels passing into the minute orifices of this 
tissue and running through the Haversian Canals. 

Q. How is the Cancellous Tissue supplied with blood-vessels. 

A. In a like manner, but by a less number ; the medullary canal is supplied 
by one large artery which enters at the nutrient foramen. 

Q. What are the Haversian Canals. 

A. Tubes which run parallel with the longitudinal axis of the bone for a 
short distance, and then branch and communicate. 

Q. What is their diameter. 

A. Average 1-500 ; some as large as 1-200 of an inch. 

Q. What are Lamellae. 

A. Thin plates of bone tissue encircling the central canal. 

Q. What are Lacunae. 

A. They appear like dark, oblong, opaque spots; but are cells filled during 
life with a nucleated cell, the processes from which pass down the canaliculi ; 
and by means of these cells the nutritive fluids are brought into contact with 
the ultimate tissue of bone. 

Q. What are Canaliculi. 

A. Very minute canals which cross the lamellae and connect the lacunae 
with the adjoining lacunae and the Haversian Canal. 

Compare the Analyses of Bone, Dentine, Enamel and Cementum. 





Calcium carbonate 





Calcium phosphate 
Calcium fluoride 

- 58.39 > 
2.25 5 




Magnesium phosphate 





Organic Matter 










Q. The Organic and Inorganic constituents of Bone form what per cent. 

A. Organic — one third, or 33.3 per cent. 
Inorganic — two thirds, or 66.7 per cent 

Q. What is the difference in proportion between the two constituents at 
different periods of life. 

A. In the young the animal matter is in excess ; in the old the bones con- 
tain more earthy and less animal matter. 

Q. What are the Muscles formed of. 

A. Bundles of reddish fibres called fasciculi endowed with the property of 
contractility, the bundles are enclosed in a delicate web called the internal 
perimysium, while the sheath which invests the entire muscle is called the 
external perimysium. 

Q. What is the Sarcolemma. 

A. The tubular sheath of the musuclar fibre ; transparent, elastic, homo- 
geneous membrane, very tough. 

Q. What is the form and size of the Muscular Fibres. 

A. Cylindrical or prismatic, not very long — 1^ inch, their average breadth 
being 1-400 of an inch. 

Q. What is the function of Gray or Vesicular Nervous Structure or Substance. 

A. To originate nervous impressions and impulses. 

Q. What is the function of White or Fibrous Nervous Structure. 

A. To conduct nervous impressions and impulses. 

Q. How is the Gray Structure distinguished. 

A. By its dark reddish-gray color and soft consistence. 

Q. What is it composed of. 

A. Of vesicles or corpuscles — nerve or ganglion corpuscles, containing 
nuclei and nucleoli. 

Q. What is the White or Fibrous Structure composed of. 

A. Two kinds of fibres — the medullated or white, and the non-medullated or 
gray fibres. 

Q. Where is the Gray or Vesicular Structure found. 

A. Brain, Spinal cord, various ganglion, in some of the nerves of special 
sense, and in gangli form enlargements in the course of certain cerebro-spinal 

Q. "Where is the White or Fibrous Structure found. 

A. In the nervous cords, a great part of the brain, and spinal cord. 

Q. "What do the Medullated or Dark-bordered fibres form. 

A. The white part of brain and spinal cord, and greater part of the cerebro- 
spinal nerves, and give to these structures their opaque white appearance. 

Q. What do they present when examined. 

A. Two parts ; the central portion is called the Axis -Cylinder, and around 
this is a sheath of fatty matter called the White Substance of Schwann, the 
whole being enclosed in a delicate membrane called the Neurilemma or Primitive 

Q. How much of the nerve-tube does the axis-cylinder constitute. 

A. One-half or one-third. 

Q. What is the function of the Medullary Sheath or White Substance of 

A. Fatty matter in a fluid state which insulates and protects the essential 
part of the nerve — the axis-cylinder. 

Q. What is the size of the nerve-fibres of the White Substance. 

A. 1-1200 to 1-2000 of an inch. 

Q. What is the Brain or Eucephalon. 

A. That part of the cerebro-spinal system which is contained in the cavity of 
the skull. 

Q. Into what parts is it divided. 

A. Medulla oblongata, pons, cerebellum, and cerebrum. 

Q. What is the Neuroglia. 

A. A network of fine connective tissue which supports the brain and spinal 

Q. What are the nerves connected with. 

A. At one end with the cerebro-spinal centre or with the ganglia, and dis- 
tributed at the other end to the different textures of the body. 

Q. What is a Nerve Plexus. 

A. The communications which take place between two or more nerves. 

Q. What is the course of Nerves. 

A. They subdivide into branches, and these frequently communicate with 
branches of a neighboring nerve. 

Q. How are the Sympathetic Nerves constructed and of what do they 

A. Like the cerebro-spinal nerves, and consist mainly of non-medullated 
fibres collected into funiculi and enclosed in a sheath of connective tsssue. 

Q. What do the Sensory or Afferent Nerves transmit. 

A. Impressions made upon the peripheral extremities to the nerves. 

Q. What do the Motor or Efferent Nerves transmit. 

A. Impressions from the nervous centres to the parts where the nerves are 

Q. How may the Ganglia be regarded. 

A. As separate and independent nervous centres, smaller than the brain, 
and of less complex structure, connected with each other, with the cerebro- 
spinal axis, and with the nerves in different situations. 

Q. What do Ganglia consist of. 

A. Vesicular nervous matter traversed by tubular and gelatinous nerve- 


Q. What does the Vascular System comprise. 

A. The Heart, Arteries, Veins, Capillaries, and Lymphatics. 

Q. What is the structure of the Inner or Endothelial coat of an Artery. 

A. Consists of a layer of pavement epithelium, a subepithelial layer of 
delicate connective tissue with branched cells in the inter-spaces, and an 
elastic layer consisting of an elastic membrane with a network of elastic fibres 
which forms the chief thickness of the inner coat. 

Q. What distinguishes the Middle coat of an Artery from the Inner coat. 

A. Its color, and the transverse (circular) arrangement of its fibres. 

Q. What does the Middle Coat consist of. 

A. Two elements, elastic and muscular, the elastic being in excess in the 
larger arteries. 

Q. How is a continuous blood-current kept up. 

A. The arteries are distended with blood forced into them by the systole of 
of the heart, and by their gradual contraction during the diastole, keep up a 
continous current. 

Q. What is the function of the muscular element of the Middle coat. 

A. By its contraction and relaxation, it regulates the quantity of blood sent 
to any part. 

Q. What does the External coat of an Artery consist of. 

A. Mainly of connective tissue and elastic fibres ; in large arteries it is thin, 
but in small it is as thick as the middle coat. 

Q. Are arteries supplied with vessels and nerves. 

A. Yes, the vessels being called vasa vasorwm — vessels of vessels ; the nerves 
are chiefly from the sympathetic, and partly from the cerebro-spinal system. 

Q. What is the usual size of the Capillaries. 

A. 1-3000 of an inch in diameter ; in skin and marrow 1-1200. 

Q. Where are the Capillaries located. 

A. Between the smallest branches of the arteries and the commencing 

Q. Are the Veins constructed like the arteries. 

A. Yes, they have three coats analogous to those of the arteries. 

Q. What is the principal difference between the coats of the veins and 

A. The weakness of the middle coat of the veins, which allows them to col- 
lapse when divided and not stand open like the arteries. 

Q. What purpose do the valves of the veins serve. 

A. Prevent the reflux of the blood. 

Q. Are the veins supplied with nutrient vessels and nerves like the arteries. 

A. Yes, but the nerves are less in number. 

Q. What is the structure of the Lymphatics and Lacteals. 

A. Composed of three coats — internal or elastic, external, or fibro — areolar 
and the middle, or muscular. 

Q. What is the function of the Lymphatics. 

A. To carry off most of the waste products, and to act as absorbents. 

Q. What is the function of the Lacteals. 

A. To take up the chyle. 

Q. What is the nature of Mucous Membranes. 

A. Soft, velvety, very vascular, surface coated with a tenacious secretion 
called mucus, which protects such membranes from foreign substances. 

Q. What is the epithelial layer of Mucous Membrane supported by. 

A. The Corium, analogous to the derma of the skin. 

Q. What is the Nature of the Corium. 

A. Very vascular, with a dense network of capillaries which lie immediately 
beneath the epithelium and are derived from small arteries of the submucous 

Q. What are found imbedded in Mucous Membrane. 

A. Numerous glands. 

Q. What project from its surface. 

A. Villi and papillae, processes analogous to the papillae of the skin. 

Q. What two tracts does Mucous Membrane cover. 

A. The Gastro-pulmonary and the Genito-urinary. 

Q. Describe the extent of the Oral Mucous Membrane. 

A. For upper jaw, it begins at upper lip and is reflected to upper jaw and at 
the central incisors it forms fraenum of upper lip ; then passes over alveolar 
ridge to roof of mouth which it covers, and extends as far back as pos- 
terior edge of palate bones ; it is then reflected downwards covering the soft 
palate ; then it passes upwards lining the nares and downwards lining 
pharynx, aesophagus, stomach and intestines ; after entering nostrils and 
lining floor, roof and septum of nose, and turbinated bones, it enters the max- 
illary sinus or antrum and lines that cavity. In lower jaw, it lines posterior 
surface of lower lip ; thence reflected on anterior face of lower jaw where it 
forms the fraenum of lower lip ; then over alveolar ridge covering it in front 
and passes over its posterior surface where it enters mouth proper; then reflect- 
ed to under surface of tongue where it forms its fraenum ; then spreads over 
dorsum and sides of tongue to its root ; then, reflected to epiglottis forming 
another fold ; then enters glottis, and lines larynx, trachea, etc. 'p 

Q. Where are the Temporal Bones situated. 

A. At side and base of the skull. 

Q. Of what three parts does each of the Temporal Bone consist. 

A. Squamous, mastoid and petrous. 

Q. What is the Squamous portion. 

A. The upper and anterior part of the bone. 

Q.. What is its form, etc. 

A. Scale-like, thin, translucent, outer surface smooth, convex, and grooved 
at back part for deep temporal muscles. 

Q. What muscle does it afford attachment for. 

A. Temporal Muscle. 

Q. What fossa does this Squamous portion form a part of. 

A. Temporal fossa. 

Q. What fascia does the curved temporal ridge at its back part give attach- 
ment to. 

A. Temporal fascia. 

Q. What more does this temporal ridge do. 

A. Limits origin of temporal muscle, and marks line between the Squamous 
and Mastoid portions. 

Q. What is the Zygoma or Zygomatic Process. 

A. A long arched process projecting from lower part of squamous portion. 

Q. How is the Zygoma connected to the Temporal Bone. 

A. By anterior, middle, and posterior roots. 


Q. What does the anterior root terminate in. 

A. A rounded eminence called Eminentia Articnlaris. 

Q. What does the Eminentia Articularis form. 

A. The front boundary of the Glenoid Cavity. 

Q. What does the Middle Root form. 

A. Outer margin of Glenoid Cavity. 

Q. Where does it end. 

A. At Glasserian Fissure. 

Q. Where is the Tubercle for the attachment of the External Lateral Liga- 
ment of Lower Jaw. 

A. At the junction of anterior root with Zygoma. 

Q. Where is the oval depression forming a part of glenoid fossa for condyle 
of lower jaw. 

A. Between anterior and middle roots. 

Q. What is the nature of internal surface of Squamous Portion. 

A. Concave, with many eminences and depressions for the cerebrum. 

Q. How is the Glenoid Fossa bounded. 

A. In front by eminentia articularis ; behind by vaginal process ; externally 
by auditory process, and middle root of Zygoma. 

Q. What is the Glasserian Fissure. 

A. A narrow slit which divides the Glenoid fossa into two parts. 

Q. What forms the posterior part of this fossa. 

A. The Tympanic Plate, a lamina of bone which forms anterior wall of 
tympanum and external auditory meatus. 

Q What does the Tympanic plate form at its lower part. 

A. A sharp edge called the Vaginal Process. 

Q. A part of what gland does the Tympanic Plate lodge. 

A. Parotid Gland. 

Q. Where is the Mastoid Portion of Temporal Bone situated. 

A. At posterior part of bone. 

Q. What is the nature of its outer surface. 

A. Rough, and perforated by numerous foramina. 

Q. Where is one of these of large size called the Mastoid Foramen. 

A. At posterior border of bone, and transmits vein to lateral sinus, and 
artery to dura mater. 

Q. What is the Mastoid Process. 

A. A conical projection of the Mastoid portion downward. 

Q. What is -the Digastric Fossa. 

A. A deep groove on inner side of Mastoid process for attachment of digas- 
tric muscle. 

Q. Where is the Occipital Groove. 

A. Parallel (but more internal) with the digastric fossa. 

Q. What does it lodge. 

A. Occipital artery. 

Q. Where is the Fossa Sigmoidea. 

A. A deep curved groove on internal surface of Mastoid Process, for part ot 
lateral sinns. 

Q. What are the Mastoid cells. 

A. A number of cellular spaces hollowed out in Mastoid Process. 

Q. Where is the Petrous Portion of Temporal Bone situated. 


A. Wedged in at base of skull between sphenoid and occipital bones. 

Q. "What is its form, and direction. 

A. Pyramidal ; direction from without being inward, forward and slightly 

Q. What parts compose it. 

A. Base, apex, three surfaces, and three borders. 

Q. What does the Petrous Portion contain in its interior. 

A. The essential parts of the ear. 

Q. What is the Meatus Auditorius Externus. 

A. A canal leading into the tympanum of ear. 

Q. Where is this canal situated. 

A. In front of the mastoid process and between the posterior and middle 
roots of the Zygoma. 

Q. What is the Auditory Process. 

A. A curved plate which surrounds part of circumference of Auditory canal. 

Q. What is the nature of Apex of Petrous Portion. 

A. Rough and uneven. 

Q. What is it received into. 

A The angular interval between posterior border of greater wing of sphe- 
noid bone and basilar process of occipital. 

Q. What does the anterior surface of Petrous Portion form. 

A. Posterior part of middle fossa of skull. 

Q. What does the Posterior surface form. 

A. Front part of posterior fossa of skull. 

Q. What does the Inferior or Basilar surface form. 

A. Part of base of skull. 

Q. What are the Borders of the Petrous Portion. 

A. Superior, Posterior, and Anterior. 

Q. What deep excavation is in the outer half of Posterior Border. 

A. Jugular fossa^ 

Q. Where is the Sphenoid Bone situated. 

A. At the Anterior part of base of skull. 

Q. What does it articulate with. 

A. All of the other bones of the cranium which it binds together. 

Q. How is it divided. 

A. Into a central portion or body, two greater and two lesser wings, and 
two processes below — pterygoid. 

Q. What is the Body of this bone. 

A. Large, cuboid in form, hollowed out inside, forming a mere shell. 

Q. Describe the Body. 

A. Consists of four surfaces — superior, inferior, anterior, and posterior. 

Q. What is the Ethmoidal Spine. 

A. A prominent point in front of superior surface for articulation with 
ethmoid bone. 

Q. What is the Optic Groove. 

A. A narrow transverse groove on Superior surface for the optic commissure, 

Q. What is the Optic Foramen. 

A. Termination of Optic Groove, for passage of optic nerve and ophthal- 
mic artery. 

Q. What is the Olivary Process. 


A. A small eminence, of olive shape, behind optic groove. 

Q. What is the Pituitary Fossa or Sella Turcica. 

A. A deep depression posterior to optic groove for the pituitary body. 

Q. "What are the Middle Clinoid Processes. 

A. Two small eminences which bound the Pituitary Fossa in front. 

Q. "What is the Carotid or Cavernous Groove. 

A. A broad groove on either side of the body which lodges the internal 
carotid artery. 

Q. Describe the Posterior Surface. 

A. Quadrilateral in form, and joined to the basilar process of occipital 

Q. "What is the Ethmoidal Crest. 

A. A vertical lamella in the middle line of anterior surface, which articulates 
in front with ethmoid bone, and forms part of septum of nose. 

Q. What are the Sphenoidal Cells or Sinuses. 

A. Two large irregular cavities hollowed out of interior of body of the 
Sphenoid bone, partly closed in front by the Sphenoidal turbinated bones, 
having a round opening by which they communicate with the nose. 

Q. What is the Rostrum. 

A. A triangular spine in middle line of inferior surface, which is received 
into a deep fissure between the alae of the vomer. 

Q. What is the Pterygo-palatine canal. 

A. A canal close to the root of pterygoid process, for the pterygo-palatine 
vessels and pharyngeal nerve. 

Q. What are the Greater Wings. 

A. Two strong processes arising from sides of body of bone, curved upward 
outward and backward, prolonged behind into a sharp-pointed extremity 
called the Spinous Process, each has three surfaces and a circumference. 

Q. What does the Superior or Cerebral Surface form. 

A. Part of the middle fossa of skull. 

Q. Where is the Foramen Itotundum. 

A. At the anterior and internal part of the Superior Surface ; it transmits 
the second division of 5th Pair of Nerves. 

Q. Where is the Foramen Ovale. 

A. Behind and external to the foramen rotundum for transmission of 3d 
division of 5th Pair of Nerves. 

Q. Where is the Foramen Vesalii. 

A. At inner side of foramen ovale, opposite root of pterygoid proces, trans- 
mits a small vein. 

Q. Where is the Foramen Spinosum. 

A. In posterior angle near spine of sphenoid ; it transmits middle menin- 
geal artery. 

Q. What does the Pterygoid Ridge divide. 

A. The convex E xternal Surface of the greater wing into two portions. 

Q. Where is the External Pterygoid muscle attached. 

A. To the inferior portion of the external surface. 

Q. Where is the Temporal Muscle attached. 

A. To the superior portion of the external surface. 

Q. Where is the Spinous Process of Greater Wing. 

A. At posterior part of Inferior portion External Surface. 


Q. What are connected to Spinous Frocess. 

A. Internal lateral ligament of lower jaw and tensor palati muscle. 

Q. What does the smooth quadrilateral Anterior Orbital Surface of Greater 
wing form. 

A. Outer wall of orbit of the eye. 

Q. With what cioes the outer half of the margin of the serrated circumfer- 
ence of the Greater AVing articulate 

A. Petrous portion of Temporal Bone. 

Q. What does the inner half form. 

A. Anterior boundary of foramen lacerum medium, and presents posterior 
aperture of Vidian canal. 

Q. Where does the circumference of Greater Wing articulate with Squa- 
mous portion of Temporal Bone. 

A. The serrated edge in front of Spine. 

Q. Where does the Greater Wing articulate with Parietal Bone. 

A. At tip, in a triangular portion. 

Q. Where with the Frontal Bone. 

A. At a broad serrated surface internal to the triangular portion. 

Q. What are the Lesser Wings. 

A. Two thin triangular plates of bone arising from upper and lateral parts% 
of body of Sphenoid ; they project outward terminating in a sharp point. 

Q. What does the smooth, flat superior surface of each support. 

A. The anterior lobe of brain. 

Q. What does the inferior surface form. 

A. The back part of roof of orbit of eye, and foramen lacerum anterius. 

Q. Where does this triangular fissure lead. 

A. From cavity of cranium into orbit. 

Q. Converted into a foramen by articulation with frontal, what does this 
fissure transmit. 

A. The 3d, 4th, 1st division of 5th and 6th nerves, filaments of cavernous 
plexus of sj T mpathetic, orbital branch of middle meningeal artery, a branch 
of lachrymal artery to dura mater, and opthalmic vein. 

Q. What does anterior border of Lesser Wing articulate with. 

A. Frontal Bone. 

Q. Into what is the Posterior Border received. 

A. Into Fissure of Silvius of brain. 

Q. What does the inner extremity of Posterior Border form. 

A. Anterior Clinoid Process. 

Q. Where is the Optic Foramen. 

A. Between the two roots for transmission of optic nerve and ophthalmic 

Q. Where are the Pterygoid Processes of Sphenoid Bone. 

A. One on each side descend from point where body and greater wing unite. 

Q. What does each of these Processes consist of. 

A. An External and Internal Plate. 

Q. What separates the plates behind. 

A. An intervening notch known as the Pterygoid Fossa. 

Q. What does the broad, thin External Pterygoid Plate form. 

A. Part of inner wall of Zygomatic fossa. 

Q. What does it give attachment to by its outer surface.. 


A. External Pterygoid Muscle. 

Q. What is the Hamular Process. 

A. The hook-like extremity of the long and narrow Internal Pterygoid Plate. 

Q. Where is the Scaphoid Fossa. 

A. At base of Internal Pterygoid Plate. 

Q. What does the anterior wall of Pterygoid Process form. 

A. Posterior wall of Spheno-Maxillary Fossa ; it supports Meckel's Ganglion. 

Q. What are the Sphenoidal Turbinated or Spongy Bones. 

A. Two thin curved plates of bone which are separate until puberty and 
sometimes are never joined to Sphenoid bone. 

Q. What does each one articulate with. 

A. In front with Ethmoid ; externally with Palate bones. 

Q. With what bones does the Sphenoid articulate. 

A. With all of the cranium, five of face — 2 malar, 2 palate, and vomer ; it 
also sometimes articulates with Superior Maxilla. 

Q. What is the nature of the Ethmoid Bone. 

A. Very light and spongy, cubical in form. 

Q. Where is it situated. 

A. At anterior part of base of cranium, between the two orbits at root of 
nose, helping to form each of these cavities. 

Q. Of how many parts does it consist. 

A. Three, a horizontal plate forming part of base of cranium ; a perpendic- 
ular plate, forming part of septum of nose ; and two lateral masses of cells. 

Q. Where is the thick, smooth triangular process called Crista Galli. 

A. It projects upward from the middle line of the horizontal or cribriform 

Q. What does the cribriform plate on each side of crista galli support. 

A. Bulb of olfactory nerve. 

Q. What does the Perpendicular Plate assist in forming. 

A. Septum of nose. 

Q. What does the anterior border of this Plate articulate with. 

A. Nasal spine of frontal and crest of nasal bones. 

Q. What is its posterior border divided into two parts, connected with. 

A. By its upper half with Sphenoid, and its lower half with Vomer. 

Q. What is attached to its Inferior border. 

A. Triangular Cartilage of nose. 

Q. What are the Lateral Masses of Ethmoid Bone. 

A. The Ethmoidal Cells, a number of thin walled cavities, placed between 
two vertical plates, the outer forming part of orbit, the inner one part of 
nasal fossa of same side. 

Q. What are the Ethmoidal Foramina. 

A. Anterior and Posterior openings into orbit. 

Q. What is the Os Planum. 

A. A thin smooth square plate of bone which forms the outer surface of 
each lateral mass. 

Q. What is the Unciform Process. 

A. An irregular lamina which projects from inferior part of each lateral 
mass, immediately beneath the os planum. 

Q. What does it serve to close. 

A.^he upper part of orifice of antrum. 


Q. What does the inner surface of each lateral mass form. 

A. Part of outer wall of nasal fossa of same side. 

Q. "What does the inner surface terminate in as it descends from under 
surface of cribriform plate. 

A. The Middle Turbinated Bone. 

Q. What is the Superior Turbinafed Bone. 

A. A thin curved plate which bounds above the superior meatus of nose. 

Q. Where is the Middle Turbinated Bone. 

A. Below and in front of Superior Meatus, extending whole length of inner 
surface of each lateral mass. 

Q. What is the Inf undibulum. 

A. A funnel-shaped canal by means of which the anterior ethmoidal cells, 
and through them the frontal sinuses communicate with the nose. 

Q. With what 15 bones does the Ethmoid articulate. 

A. Sphenoid, 2 sphenoidal turbinated, frontal, 2 nasal, 2 superior 
maxillary, 2 lachrymal, 2 palate, 2 inferior turbinated, and vomer. 

Q. What are the Nasal Bones. 

A. Two small oblong bones placed side by side at middle and upper part of 

Q. What do they form by their function. 

A. The Bridge of Nose. 

Q. Describe the Nasal Bones. 

A. Each has two surfaces, outer and inner, and four borders ; the outer 
surface is concave from above downward, convex from side to side, the in- 
ner surface is concave from side to side, convex from above downward ; the 
superior border is thick and articulates with frontal ; the inferior border 
is broad, thin and sharp, directed obliquely outward, downward, and back- 
ward, to which is attached the lateral cartilage of nose. 

Q. What is the Nasal Angle. 

A. The border prolonged at its inner extremity into a sharp spine. 

Q. What does the external border of Nasal bone articulate with. 

A. Nasal process of Superior Maxillary. 

Q. What does the internal border articulate with and form. 

A. Its fellow of opposite side, and forms part of septum of nose, being pro- 
longed behind into a vertical crest. 

Q. What does this crest articulate with. 

A. Nasal spine of frontal bone, and ethmoid bone. 

Q. With what does each Nasal bone articulate. 

A. With four, 2 of cranium — frontal and ethmoid, and two of face — the op- 
posite nasal and superior maxillary. 

Q. Where are the Palate Bones situated. 

A. At back part of Nasal Fossa, wedged between the Superior Maxillary 
and pterygoid process of sphenoid. 

Q. What cavities does each bone assist in forming. 

A. Floor and outer wall of nose, roof of mouth and floor of orbit. 

Q. What Fossa and Fissure does each bone assist in forming. 

A. Spheno-maxillary and Pterygoid fossa, and Spheno-maxillary fissure. 

Q. What does each Palate bone resemble in form. 

A. The letter L. 

Q. Into what parts is the Palate bone divided. 


A. Inferior or horizontal and superior or vertical plate. 

Q. What is the nature of Horizontal Plate. 

A. Quadrilateral, thick, and presents 2 surfaces and 4 borders. 

Q. What does the Superior Surface form. 

A. Being concave from side to side, it forms back part of floor of nostril. 

Q. What does the Inferior Surface form. 

A. Back part of hard palate. 

Q. Where is the Posterior Palatine canal. 

A. At outer extremity of a transverse ridge at posterior part of inferior 

Q. Where are the orifices of the two accessory palatine canals. 

A. Near the deep groove at the outer extremity of the transverse ridge 

Q. What is the nature of the anterior border of Palate bone. 

A. Serrated and bevelled, and articulates with palate process of Superior 
Maxillary bone. 

Q. What is the nature of the posterior border. 

A. Concave and free, and serves for attachment of Soft Palate. 

Q. What is the Posterior Nasal Spine. 

A. The inner extremity of the posterior border which is sharp and pointed 
when united with the opposite bone, and gives attachment to the Azygos 
Uvula muscle. 

Q. What is the external border united with. 

A. Lower part of perpendicular plate. 

Q. What is the nature of the Internal border. 

A. The thickest, and serrated for articulation with its fellow of opposite side. 

Q. What does the superior ridge of both bones form. 

A. A crest into which the vomer is received. 

Q. What is the nature of the vertical Plate. 

A. Thin and oblong, directed upward and a little inward. 

Q. Where is the Inferior Turbinated Crest. 

A. Immediately above the shallow depression which forms part of inferior 
meatus of nose. 

Q. What does this Crest articulate with. 

A. The Inferior Turbinated Bone. 

Q. Where is the Superior Turbinated Crest. 

A. Above the Inferior, and forms part of middle meatus. 

Q. What is the nature of the external surface of Vertical Plate. 

A. Rough and irregular to articulate with inner surface of superior max- 

Q. Where is the Posterior Palatine canal. 

A. Towards the back of external surface, which canal is first a groove, until 
articulation with superior maxillary bone forms a canal. 

Q. Where is the Maxillary Process. 

A. On the anterior border of external surface opposite Inferior Turbinated 

Q. Where is the Pterygoid Process, or Tuberosity of palate. 

A. At the lower part of this anterior border. 

Q. What is the Orbital Process. 

A. A well marked process of the superior border of Vertical Plate ; the 
fellow process which is smaller being called the Sphenoidal Process. 


Q. Where are the Malar Bones situated. 

A. At upper and outer part of face, and form prominence of cheek. 

Q. What is their nature. 

A. Two in number, they are quadrangular in form, and each presents ex- 
ternal, internal surfaces and frontal, orbital, maxillary and zygomatic pro- 
cesses and four borders. 

Q. What is the nature of External Surface. 

A. Smooth and convex, and having near centre the malar foramina. 

Q. What does the External Surface give attachment to. 

A. Zygomaticus major and minor muscles. 

Q. What is the nature of Internal Surface. 

A. Concave, directed backward and inward, and presents internally a rough 
triangular surface for articulation with Superior Maxillary ; externally a 
smooth concave surface which forms part of Zygomatic fossa, and affords 
attachment to part of Temporal muscle above, and Masseter muscle below. 

Q. What is the nature of the Orbital Process. 

A. A thick and strong plate which projects backward from orbital margin 
of bone ; its upper surface, by uniting with greater wing of sjjhenoid, forms 
outer wall of orbit ; its under surface, smooth and convex, forms part of tem- 
poral fossa ; its anterior margin forms part of circumference of orbit ; its 
superior margin articulates with frontal bone ; its posterior margin with 
sphenoid ; internally it articulates with orbital surface of superior maxillary ; 
on upper surface are orifices of one or two temporo-malar canals for filaments 
of orbital branch of superior maxillary nerve. 

Q. What is the nature of the Maxillary Process. 

A. Bough and triangular; articulates with Superior Maxillary. 

Q. What is the Nature of Zygomatic Process. 

A. Long, narrow and serrated; articulates with Zygomatic process of tem- 
poral bone. 

Q. What is the nature of the four Borders. 

A. The orbital is smooth, arched and forms part of circumference of orbit; 
the maxillary is rough and bevelled to articulate with superior maxillary, and 
affords attachment to levator labii superioris proprius muscle ; the temporal 
border is like italic letter /, in shape, and gives attachment to temporal fascia; 
the zygomatic border is continuous with lower border of zygomatic arch, and 
gives attachment to edge of masseter muscle. 

Q. With what bones does the malar articulate. 

A. Frontal, Sphenoid, Temporal, and Superior Maxillary. 

Q. Where are the Inferior Turbinated Bones situated. 

A. One on each side of outer wall of nasal fossa. 

Q. What does each consist of. 

A. A layer of thin spongy bone turned over upon itself like a scroll, extend- 
ing horizontally along outer wall of nasal fossa. 

Q. What is the nature of Internal Surface. 

A. Convex, perforated by many apertures and traversed by grooves and 

Q. What is the nature of External Surface. 

A. It forms part of inferior meatus; upper border is thin and irregular, 
and joined to bones along outer wall of nose. 

Q. What is the Lachrymal Process. 


A. The anterior process of the middle portion of superior border of external 
Q. Where is the Ethmoidal Process. 

A. At junction of the two middle fourths of the bone, and joins the ethmoid. 
Q. What is the Maxillary Process. 

A. A thin lamina of bone curving downward and outward, and hooking over 
lower edge of orifice of antrum. 

Q. What is the form of both extremities. 
A. More or less narrow and pointed. 

Q. With what bones do the Inferior Turbinated articulate. 
A. The ethmoid, superior maxillary, lachrymal and palate. 
Q. Where is the Vomer situated. 

A. A single bone at back part of nasal fossse, forming part of septum of 

Q. What is its nature. 

A. Thin, like a ploughshare in form, and has two surfaces — lateral, and four 

Q. What is the nature of the Lateral Surfaces. 

A. Smooth, and marked by small furrows for vessels, and b3 r a groove on 
each side, sometimes a canal, called naso-palatine which transmits nasopal- 
atine nerve. 
Q. What are the nature of the Borders. 

A. The superior is thickest, with a deep groove on each side of which is a 
horizontal wing ; the groove receives the rostrum of the sphenoid ; the inferior 
border is longest, broad and uneven in front where it articulates with superior 
maxillary bones ; thin and sharp behind where it unites with palate bones ; 
the upper half of anterior border consists of two laminae of bone between 
which is received the perpendicular plate of ethmoid ; the lower half is united 
to triangular cartilage of nose ; the posterior border is free, concave, and 
separates nasal fossae behind ; thick bifid above, thin below. 
Q. With what bones does the Vomer articulate. 

A. Sphenoid, Ethmoid, 2 Superior Maxillary, 2 Palate, and with cartilage 
of septum of nose. 

Q. Name Cranial Nerves, and functions of the 12 Pairs. 
A. 1st Pair Olfactory, Special sense of smell. 

2d " Optic, " " sight. 

3d " Motor Oculi, Motion to 5 orbital muscles. 

4th " Pathetic, Motion to one orbital muscle. 

5th " Trifacial, Sensation and motion, possibly special sense 

of taste. 
6th " Abducens, Motion to one orbital muscle. 

7th " Facial, Motion to muscles of face. 

8th " Auditory, Special sense of hearing. 

9th " Glosso-Pharyngeal, Sensation, motion and special sense of taste. 
10th " Pneumogastric, Sensation and motion. 
11th " Spinal accessory, Motion. 

12th " Hypoglossal, Motion to muscles of tongue. 

Q. How many origins has a Cranial Nerve. 
A. Two, superficial and deep. 
Q. How do cranial nerves pass out of cranium. 


A. Through base of skull. 

Q. What is reflected over them as they pass oat. 

A. A prolongation of dura mater as a sheath. 

Q. What are nerves of special sense. 

A. Convey the impression made upon their peripheral ends to a particular 
cell of Brain. 

Q. What is the Pons Varolii. 

A. Eminence at upper part of Medulla Oblongata, formed by the union of 
the crura cerebri and crura cerebelli. 

Q. What is the Medulla Oblongata. 

A. Upper enlarged portion of Spinal Cord, resting on basilar process of 
occipital bone. 

Q. What is the Foramen Ovale. 

A. An opening in Sphenoid bone for transmission of Inferior Maxillary 
branch of 5th Nerve. 

Q. What is the Foramen Rotundum. 

A. Opening in Greater Wing of Sphenoid bone for transmission of Superior 
Maxillary branch of 5th Nerve. 

Q. Describe the origin and course of 5th Pair of Nerves. 

A. The pons varolii and medulla oblongata, by a large sensory or posterior 
root, and a small motor or anterior root. The deep origin is widely separated 
from the superficial origin. Backwards from anterior surface of pons varolii, 
the nerve passes directly through pons to medulla oblongata without any con- 
nection with its fibres, on reaching the medulla it forms 3 main divisions, one 
anterior and two posterior. From the superficial origin the two roots extend 
obliquely upward and forward across summit of petrous portion of temporal 
bone, and through an oval opening in dura mater into middle fossa of 

Q. Where does the larger Posterior Sensory Root terminate. 

A. In Gasserian Ganglion. 

Q. Where is this Ganglion situated. 

A. In depression on anterior surface near apex of petrous portion of tem- 
poral bone. 

Q. What is the form of this Ganglion. 

A. Broad, flattened somewhat semilunar or crescent-shaped ; its convexity 
is forward and slightly upward. 

Q. What 3 large divisions arise from anterior or concave margin of the 

A. Ophthalmic, Superior Maxillary and Inferior Maxillary. 

Q. Which is the largest. 

A. The Inferior Maxillary. 

Q. What does the Ophthalmic supply. 

A. Eyeball, lachrymal gland, mucous membrane of eye and nasal fossae, 
integument and muscles of eyebrow, forehead and nose. 

Q. Name the terminal branches of Ophthalmic. 

A. Lachrymal, Frontal and Nasal. 

Q. Name the terminal branches of the Superior Maxillary. 

A. Orbital or Temporo-malar, Spheno-palatine, Posterior Dental, Anterior 
Dental ; and on the face — Palpebral, Nasal, and Labial. 

Q. Name the terminal branches of the Inferior Maxillary . 


A. Masseteric, Deep Temporal, Buccal, and 2 Pterygoid, comprise the 
anterior and smaller division ; while the Auriculotemporal, Gustatory or 
Lingual, and Inferior Dental, comprise the posterior and larger division. 

Q. Describe Ophthalmic, or 1st Division of 5th Nerve. 

A. Smallest ; arises from upper part of Gasserian Ganglion ; one inch long; 
sensory ; enters orbit through sphenoidal fissure, when it divides into the 
three terminal branches. 

Q. Describe Superior Maxillary, or 2nd Division of 5th Nerve. 

A. Sensory ; arises from middle of Gasserian Ganglion and passes through 
foramen rotundum, crosses spheno-maxillary fissure and through infra-orbital 
canal at which foramen it emerges on face, giving off in spheno-maxillary 
fossa the orbital, spheno-palatine, and Posterior Dental branches ; in the 
infra-orbital canal it gives off anterior dental branch ; on face, the palpebral, 
nasal and labial branches. 

Q. Describe the Inferior Maxillary , or 3d Division of 5th Nerve. 

A. Largest ; compound nerve, large or sensory root arises from inferior 
angle of Gasserian Ganglion ; the smaller or motor root passes beneath this 
ganglion and joins sensory root just after its exit through foramen ovale ; 
immediately beneath base of skull divides into anterior and posterior branches; 
the anterior is smallest and receives nearly all of the motor root giving 
branches to mnscles of mastication ; the posterior branch is largest, and for 
most part sensory receiving a few filaments from motor root. Supplies teeth 
and gums of lower jaw, temple and external ear, lower face and lip, and 
muscles of mastication . 

Q. Describe Inferior Dental Branch. 

A. Largest, passes downward with artery of same name, first beneath exter- 
nal pterygoid muscle, and then between internal lateral ligament of lower jaw, 
and ramus of jaw to inferior dental foramen, and then through inferior dental 
canal to mental foramen where it divides into incisor and mental branches. 

Q. Describe course of branches of Ophthalmic Nerve. 

A. Frontal ; largest enters orbit through sphenoidal fissure ; passes forward 
between Levator palpebrae muscle and periosteum ; midway between apex and 
base of orbit it divides into two branches — supra-trochlear and supraorbital; 
the former goes to corrugator supercillii andoccipito-frontalis muscles, and the 
latter supply same muscles and also the orbicularis palpebrarum. Nasal ; 
enters orbit between the two heads of external rectus muscle, and passes in- 
ward to the orbit, where it enters anterior ethmoidal foramen ; then enters 
cranium and into nose, where it divides into internal and external branches, 
the former supplying mucous membrane near anterior part of septum of nose, 
the latter supplying wing and tip of nose, and then joining with facial 
nerve. Lachrymal ; smallest, passes into orbit through sphenoidal fissure to 
lachrj-mal gland supplying this gland and conjunctiva, and terminates in 
upper eyelid, finally joining facial nerves. 

Q. Describe the course of Branches of Superior Maxillary Nerve. 

A. Orbital; arises in spheno-maxillary fossa, and enters orbit by spheno- 
maxillary fissure, and then divides into temporal and malar; the first runs in 
a groove along outer wall of orbit in malar bone, and is joined by a branch of 
the lachrymal, and enters temporal fossa, ascends and pierces temporal mus- 
cle, and fascia and is distributed to integument of temple and side of fore- 
head; and then joins facial and auriculotemporal ; the latter (malar), passes 


along external inferior angle of orbit and emerges on face in a foramen of the 
malar bone, perforating orbicularis palpebrarum muscle, and supplies promi- 
nence of cheek ; it also joins facial Spheno-palatine ; two in number, descend to 
spheno-palatine ganglion. Posterior Dental : Two in number, arise from trunk 
as it is about to enter infra-orbital canal, divide and pass downward on tuber- 
osity of superior maxillary bone ; one of them enters a canal in this bone, 
passes from behind forward, and joins the anterior dental nerve opposite 
canine fossa. Numerous filaments form a plexus in outer wall of superior 
maxillary bone just above the alveoli ; from this plexus filaments are given off 
for the pulps of the molar teeth, the lining of antrum, portion of gums ; the 
other branch passing to the gums and mucous membrane of cheek. Anterior 
Denial : Large, is given off from superior maxillary nerve just before it 
emerges from infra-orbital foramen ; it enters a special canal in front wall of 
antrum, and joins the posterior dental. In its course through the canal it 
gives off the middle dental, which supplies the bicuspid teeth. Sometimes this 
branch is given off directly from superior maxillary nerve in back part of 
infra-orbital canal, and passes in a special canal to the bicuspid teeth. Other 
filaments of the anterior dental nerve pass to the canine and incisor teeth, and 
it forms a communication with a nasal branch from Meckel's ganglion. Palpe- 
bral : Pass upward beneath orbicularis palpebrarum, which they supply, and 
also integument and conjunctiva of lower eyelid with sensation, joining facial 
and malar nerves at outer angle of orbit. Nasal : These branches pass inward 
and supply integument of side of nose and join nasal branch of ophthalmic. 
Labial : Largest and most numerous, descend beneath Levator labii superioris 
to integument and muscles of upper lip, mucous membrane of mouth, and 
labial glands ; the infra-orbital plexus is formed by filaments from facial which 
join these branches just beneath orbit. 

Q. Describe Spheno-palatine or Meckel's Ganglion. 

A. Largest of cranial ganglia, placed in spheno-maxillary fossa, close to 
spheno-palatine foramen ; triangular; reddish-gray color, situated just below 
superior maxillary nerve as it crosses the fossa. 

Q. Describe course of anterior Branches of Inferior Maxillary Nerve. 

A. Masseteric : Outward course above External pterygoid muscle in front of 
temporo-maxillary articulation ; crosses sigmoid notch to masseter muscle as 
far as anterior border. 

Deep Temporal : Two in number, anterior and posterior ; supply deep surface 
of temporal muscle ; posterior branch small, and situated back of temporal 
fossa ; anterior branch reflected upward at pterygoid ridge of sphenoid bone, 
to front of temporal fossa ; generally given off from buccal nerve. 

Buccal : Pierces external pterygoid and passes down beneath coronoid pro- 
cess of lower jaw, or through temporal muscle, to buccinator where it di- 
vides into superior and inferior branches, and gives a branch to external 
pterygoid and a few filaments to temporal muscle ; the superior branch 
supplies integument and part cf buccinator muscle and joins with facial ; 
inferior branch passes to angle of mouth and supplies same parts as su- 
perior, and also joins facial nerve. Pterygoid : Two in number, one sup- 
plying each pterygoid muscle; the branch to internal pterygoid passes inward 
to deep surface ; connected at its origin with otic ganglion ; frequently de- 
rived from buccal. 

Q. Describe the Posterior Branches of Inferior Maxillary. 


A. The larger division and mostly sensor.y, but receives a few filaments from 
motor root. 

Q. Into how many branches does it divide. 

A. Three — Auriculotemporal, Gustatory, and Inferior Dental. 

Q. Describe these Branches. 

A. Auriculotemporal : Arises by 2 roots and runs backward beneath external 
pterygoid muscle to inner side of neck of lower jaw ; then upward between 
external ear and condyle of jaw under parotid gland, and ascends over zygoma, 
and divides into two temporal branches, the posterior being the smaller, and 
distributed to pinna of ear and adjoining tissues ; the anterior passes to vertex 
of skull, and supplies integument of temple, joining with facial and orbital cf 
superior maxillary ; the auriculo-temporal communicates with otic ganglion. 

Lingual or Gustatory : Supplies papillae and mucous membrane of tongue ; 
passes between internal pterygoid muscle and inner side of ramus of jaw, 
and crosses to tongue across Wharton's duct, along side of tongue to 
apex, immediately beneath mucous membrane, its branches supply mucous 
membrane of mouth, gums, sublingual gland, papillae and mucous 
membrane of tongue, anastomosing with hypoglossal nerve at tip of tongue. 

Inferior Dental : Largest of the three branches of Inferior Maxillary ; passes 
downward with inferior dental artery beneath external pterygoid muscle and 
then between internal lateral ligament and ramus of jaw to dental foramen, 
which it enters, and then passes through dental canal of inferior maxillary 
bone, beneath the teeth as far as the mental foramen, where it divides into 
two terminal branches — incisor and mental. While in the dental canal it seDds 
filaments to the molar and bicuspid teeth ; the incisor branch continues for- 
ward within the bone to median line, supplying the canine and incisor teeth ; 
the mental branch emerges at mental foramen, and its two or three branches 
supply skin and mucous membrane of lower lip. Mylo-hyoid : Leaves inferior 
dental nerve as the latter is about to enter dental foramen ; it descends in a 
groove on inner surface of ramus, and sends filaments to mylo-hyoid and di- 
gastric muscles, and to submaxillary gland. 

Q. What two small ganglia are connected with the inferior maxillary nerve. 

A. Otic and Submaxillary. 

Q. Describe Otic Ganglion. 

A. Small, oval, flattened ; reddish gray color, situated immediately below 
foramen ovale on inner surface of inferior maxillary nerve, it is in relation 
with the latter nerve at a point where a motor root joins the sensory portion, 
being thus connected by two or three filaments, and also with the auriculo- 
temporal nerve; this connection with the auriculo-temporal accounts for ear- 
ache during dentition. 

Q. What are the principal Arteries supplying the Head. 

A. Two Vertebral and two common Carotid. 

Q. Describe Common Carotid Arteries. 

A. Right and Left; about % inch in calibre and are similar in position and 
course through the neck on either side ; the Right is the shorter, and is more 
superficial than the Left ; it is one of the terminal branches of the innominate 
artery, which arises from arch of aorta on right side, the other branch being 
the Subclavian. 

Q. Describe Left Common Carotid. 

A. Arises from left of arch of aorta , passes upward and a little outward to 

left of sterno-clavicular articulation, and then pursues same course as right 
common carotid ; it is situated just behind upper portion of sternum. 

Q. Where do the Common Carotids terminate. 

A. Opposite upper border of thyroid cartilage, without giving off any 

Q. What are the two branches of each common carotid. 

A. External and Internal Carotids. 

Q. Describe External Carotid. 

A. One fourth of an inch in calibre ; arises from common carotid in the 
carotid triangle, opposite upper border of thyroid cartilage ; passes up neck 
to a point opposite neck of lower jaw where it divides into two terminal 
branches — Internal Maxillary and Superficial Temporal. 

Q. What are the Branches of External Carotid. 

A. Eight — Superior Thyroid, Lingual, Facial, Occipital, Posterior Auricular, 
Ascending-pharyngeal, Temporal and Internal Maxillary. 

Q. Describe the Superior Tlrjroid Artery. 

A. The first branch of External Caiotid ; 1-7 inch in calibre ; arises close to 
bifurcation of common carotid; passes upward, forward and downward to 
thyroid cartilage, and thence to thyroid gland. 

Q. Describe the Lingual Artery. 

A. Arises opposite the hyoid bone; passes upward, downward, upward 
again, to under surface of tongue to its tip, where it ends in the Ranine artery, 
which is very superficial ; 1-7 inch in calibre. 

Q. Describe Facial Artery. 

A. Arises a little above lingual ; passes upward, forward, inward, again for- 
ward within Submaxillary Gland, extending parallel with base of lower jaw ; 
leaving gland, it makes a sharp turn upward over edge of body of jaw, curving 
through a notch in front of masseter muscle ;quite superficial over body of jaw, 
and flow of blood can be controlled by pressing artery against edge of bone ; it 
then passes obliquely upward and forward towards inner canthus of eye where 
it ends as the angular artery ; from body of jaw it passes near angle of mouth 
and ends in Levator labii superioris alaeque nasi muscle. 

Q. How are the Branches of Facial divided. 

A. Into Cervical and Facial. 

Q. What are the Cervical and Facial Branches. 

A. Cervical Inferior or Ascending Palatine — supplies stylo-glossus and stylo- 
pharyngeus muscles, soft palate and palatine glands ; Tonsillar — supplies 
tonsil and root of tongue ; Submaxillary — supplies submaxillary gland, lym- 
phatic glands, neighboring muscles and integuments ; Submental — largest, 
supplies muscles attached to jaw, a superficial branch supplying depressor 
labii inferioris muscle and integument, and a deep branch supplying lower lip; 
the muscular branches supply internal pterygoid and stylo-hyoid, masseter 
and buccinator muscles. Facial Branches : Inferior labial supplies muscles 
and integument of lower lip ; inferior coronary supplies labial glands, mucous 
membranes, and muscles of lower lip ; superior coronary supplies upper lip 
and nose ; lateralis nasi supplies wing and dorsum of nose ; angular supplies 
cheek, lachrymal sac, and orbicularis muscle. 

Q. Describe Occipital Artery. 

A. Arises from posterior part of external carotid opposite the facial, covered 
by part of parotid gland, and higher up passes across internal carotid artery, 


internal jugular vein, and pneumogastric and spinal accessor}' nerves; ascends, 
passes backward in a groove of temporal bone, and vertically upwards over 
occiput where it divides into numerous branches. 

Q. Describe Posterior Auricular Artery. 

A. Small, arises opposite apex of styloid process, ascends covered by parotid 
gland to groove between cartilage of ear and mastoid process where it divides 
into interior branch, which supplies back of auricle and posterior branch sup- 
plies scalp above and behind ear. The posterior auricular also supplies digas- 
tric, stylo-hyoid, and sterno-mastoid muscles, and parotid gland, and divides 
into stylo-mastoid and auricular branches. 

Q. Describe Ascending Pharyngeal Artery. 

A. Smallest of external carotid branches ; deep in neck ; arises from back 
part near beginning of carotid ; ascends vertically to under surface of base of 
skull ; supplies muscles and nerves of neck ; and a pharyngeal branch goes to 
tympanum; and a meningeal branch to dura mater. 

Q. Describe Temporal Artery. 

A. Smaller of the two terminal branches of external carotid; begins in 
parotid gland between neck of condyle of lower jaw and external meatus, 
crosses root of zygoma just beneath integument, and two inches above zygo- 
matic arch divides into anterior and posterior branches ; the anterior passes 
over forehead and supplies muscles etc., of that region and can be felt when 
used to note the pulse ; the posterior temporal is larger, and curves upward 
and backward along side of head and joins its fellow of opposite side. 

Q. What are the Branches of Temporal artery. 

A. Besides some small branches to parotid gland, temporo-maxillary 
articulation, and masseter muscle, its branches are the transverse facial , given 
off in parotid gland, passes across face between Steno's duct and lower bor- 
der of zygoma, and divides on side of face into numerous branches which 
supply parotid gland, masseter muscle, and integument ; it rests on masseter 
muscle; middle temporal arises just above zy: omatic arch, and supplies tem- 
poral muscle, and a branch goes to orbicularis palpebrarum ; anterior auricu- 
lar branches go to external ear. 

Q. Describe Internal Meuxillary Artery. 

A. Larger of the two terminal branches of external carotid ; passes inward, 
at right angles to carotid, to inner side of condyle of lower jaw, to supply 
deep structures of face ; at its origin is imbedded in parotid gland ; situated 
on level with lower end of lobe of ear ; it passes forward and inward between 
ramus of jaw and internal lateral ligament ; crosses inferior dental nerve 
and lies beneath external pterygoid muscle ; in 2nd part of its course, it passes 
obliquely forward and upward, back of ramus of jaw and lower part of tem- 
poral muscle ; in 3d part of its course, it approaches superior maxillary bone ; 
enters spheno-maxillary fossa, and lies in relation to Meckel's ganglion. 

Q. What are the Branches of Maxillary Portion of Internal Maxillary. 

A. Tympanic to tympanum ; Mieldle Meningeal to dura mater ; Small Men- 
ingeal to Gasserian ganglion, and dura mater ; and Inferior dental. 

Q. Describe Inferior Dental Artery. 

A. Descends with dental nerve to foramen on inner side of ramus < f lower 
jaw ; passes along dental canal in body of lower jaw giving off branches to 
molar and bicuspid teeth ; opposite 1st bicuspid it divides into two branches — 
incisor and mental ; incisor branch continues forward in bone beneath incisor 


teeth and gives off branches which supply inferior canines and incisors, as far 
as symphysis, where it anastomoses with same artery on opposite side ; mental 
branch emerges with nerve at mental foramen and supplies chin, and anasto- 
moses with submental, inferior labial, and inferior coronary arteries. 

Q. Where is Mylo-hyoid branch of Inferior dental given off. 

A. As the inferior dental enters dental foramen ; it runs in mylo-hyoid 
groove and ramifies under surface of mylo-hyoid muscle. 

Q. What are the Branches of the Pterygoid Portion of Internal Maxillary. 

A. Deep Temporal, two in number which supply temporal muscle; Pterygoid, 
which supply pterygoid muscles ; Masseteric, which passes above sigmoid 
notch to supply masseteric muscle ; Buccal, a small branch which runs for- 
ward to supply buccinator muscle. 

Q. What are the Branches of the Spheno-maxillary Portion of Internal 

A. Alveolar or Posterior Dental, which is given off by a common branch with 
the infraorbital just as the trunk is passing into spheno-maxillary fossa ; it 
descends upon tuberosity of superior maxillary bone and divides into numer- 
ous branches, some entering the posterior dental canals to supi>ly molar and 
bicuspid teeth and lining of antrum; others con f inue forward on alveolar pro- 
cess to supply the gums ; infraorbital, a continuation of internal maxillary ; 
arises by a common trunk with posterior dental, and passes along infraorbital 
canal with superior maxillary nerve, emerging on face at infraorbital foramen. 
In the canal it gives off branches to orbit, lachrymal gland and muscles of the 
eye ; other branches called anterior dental descend through canals in bone to 
supply mucous membrane of antrum and the upper front teeth ; on face it 
supplies lachrymal sac, inner angle of orbit, and anastomoses with facial, and 
nasal of ophthalmic ; descending palatine passes down along posterior palatine 
canal ; emerges from posterior palatine foramen, runs forward on inner side 
of alveolar border of hard palate to anterior palatine canal ; its branches go to 
the gums, mucous membrane of hard palate, and palatine glands , while in 
palatine canal, branches leave it to supply soft palate and tonsils ; vidian, 
passes along vidian canal to pharynx, Eustachian tube and tympanum ; 
pterygo-palat'me, passes through pterygo-palatine canal to pharynx and 
Eustachian tube ; nasal or spheno-palatine passes through foramen of same 
name into cavity of nose, and its branches supply nose, antrum and ethmoid 
and sphenoid cells. 

Q. Describe Internal Carotid Artery. 

A. Commences at bifurcation of common carotid, opposite upper border of 
thyroid cartilage; runs upward to carotid foramen in petrous portion of tem- 
poral bone ; then forward and inward through carotid canal into skull ; then 
ascends to posterior clinoid process, forward through cavernous sinus ; then 
upward, pierces dura mater and divides into terminal branches ; it supplies 
anterior part of brain, eye and appendages, forehead and nose. 

Q. What does the term "anastomoses" imply. 

A. The union or inosculation of one blood-vessel with another. 

Q. Name, with the origin, insertion and action, each of the muscles con- 
cerned in the movements of Lower Jaw. 
Answer: Origin. Insertion. Action. 

Temporal. Temporal fossa and fascia. Coronoid process. To bring incisor 

teeth toeether. 



External Pterygoid. 

Internal Pterygoid 





Platysma Myoides. 

From anterior % 
and inner suriace of 
Zygoma and malar 
process of superior 

Upper head from 
pterygoid ridge, great 
wing of Sphenoid, 
Lower head from Ex- 
ternal pterygoid 
plate and tuberosities 
of palaie and super- 
ior maxillary bones. 

Pterygoid fossa of 
sphenoid, and tuber- 
osity of palate. 

By two bellies : — 
posterior from mas- 
toid process of tem- 
poral bone ; anterior 
from fossa on inferior 
maxillary near sym- 

Upper border of 

Mylo-hyoid ridge. 

Inferior genial tu- 
bercle of inferior 

Cellular tissue and 
integuments below 


Angle, ramus and 
coronoid process of 
lower jaw. 

Depression in front 
of condyle of lower 
jaw and inter-articu- 
lar fibro-cartilage. 

Angle and inner sur- 
face of ramus as high 
as dental foramen. 

Into central tendon, 
perforating stylo- 
hyoid muscle : bound 
down to hyoid bone 
by aponeurotic loop. 


Raise back part 01 
lower jaw; Muscle of 

To draw 

jaw for- 

Raise and draw for- 
ward lower jaw. 

To raise hyoid bone 
and tongue and draw 
down lower jaw. 

Hyoid Bone. 

Hyoid bone. 

Hyoid bone. 

Chin and fascia of 
lower jaw. 

To depress and draw 
backward hyoid bone 
and depress lower 

To elevate and draw 
forward hyoid bone 
and depress lower 

Elevates and draws 
forward hyoid bone, 
and depresses jaw. 

To depress mouth 
and wrinkle skin. 

Q. Same principal Muscles of Expression, with origin, insertion and action. 

answer:- Origin. Insertion. Action. 

Orbicularis Oris. 

Nasal septum and Buccinator and ad- To close mouth, 
inferior and superior jacent muscles, 
maxillary borders. 
Levator labii su/perioris 
alaeque nasi. 

Nasal process of Cartilage of wing of To elevate upper 
Superior Maxillary. nose and upper lip. lip and dilate nostril. 
Levator labii superioris. 

Lower margin of Upper lip. 

Levator anguli oris. 

Zyyomaticus Major. 

Zyyornatieus Minor. 

Canine fossa of Angle of mouth. 
Superior maxillary. 

Malar bone. 

Malar bone. 

Angle of mouth. 

Angle of mouth. 

To elevate the lip. 

To elevate- angle of 

To raise lip out- 

To raise lip out- 

Levator Labii 

Incisive fossa of in- Integument of low- To elevate lower 
ferior Maxillary. er lip. lip. 


Depressor Labii 


External oblique 
line of Inferior Max- 


Lower lip. 


To depress lower 


]■„ pressor cmguli 


External oblique 
line of inferior max- 

Angle of mouth. 

To depress angle of 


Posterior alveo- 
lar process of both 

Orbicularis oris. 

To compress cheeks. 



Fascia over mas- 
seter muscle. 

Angle of mouth. 

The laughing- mus- 

Q. What is the condition of Fibres of Peridental Membrane next to the bone. 

A. So thick as to represent bandies. 

Q. "What is the nature of Peridental Membrane on surface in contact with 
the cementum. 

A. A fine network of interlacing bands closely connected with surface of 
cement um. 

Q. How do the thicker fibres of its outer surface pass into the fine network 
of inner surface. 

A. Insensibility where inner surface is more richly cellular. 

Q. What are found on inner surface. 

A. Large, soft nucleated plasma masses — cementoblasts. 

Q. What is the office of the Peridental Membrane. 

A. Functional, so far as it is the membrane in which osteoblasts that form 
alveolar walls, and cementoblasts that form cementum, are developed ; Physi- 
cal, so far as the function of securing tooth in cavity ; Sensory, so far as it is 
the organ of touch of the tooth, on account of its abundance of nerves. 

Q. What other cells besides osteoblasts and cementoblasts are found in the 
Peridental Membrane. 

A. Fibroblasts for renewal of fibrous tissues ; Osteoclasts for removal of 
alveolar walls for change in position of tooth, or for change of form of root 
through the cementum. 

Q. When are Osteoblasts developed. 

A. As occasion requires ; but are generally present somewhere within 

Q. Does the Peridental Membrane contain Lymphatics. 

A. Yes, peculiar to itself, and many in contact with cementum. 

Q. Into how many parts is it divided. 

A. Three — Gingival, portion about neck of tooth and below margin of 
alveolar cavity ; Apical, portion occupying apical space ; Body, portion from 
margin of alveolar wall to apical space. 

Q. How are the arteries distributed over Peridental Membrane. 

A. Larger ones enter root canal to supply pulp, while the others four, six 
or eight in number, pass along sides of root to this membrane; passing along 
membrane they divide into many branches, a number of which enter Haversian 
canals of alveolar walls, or receive branches from such a source. 

Q. Describe nerve supply of Peridental Membrane. 

A. Nerves are received by it in same manner as the arteries ; a rich plexus 
is formed at gingival border. 


Q. What function does the nerves give to this membrane. 

A. They render it the organ of touch, as the enamel has not such a sense. 

Q. When normal is it very susceptible to irritation. 

A. No, but is very painful when inflamed. 

Q. Are the nerves supplied to this membrane through the alveolar walls 
sufficient to maintain its sensory function. 

A. Yes, Example : Large acute abscess in apical space. 

Q. What is the exposed surface of Owns covered with. 

A. A dense, squamous epithelium to withstand severe abrading by the 
food, etc. 

Q. What does the exposed surface of gums rest upon. 

A. On a layer of softer epithelial cells which cover a series of papillae 
rising from fibrous tissue beneath ; and all rest on upper edge of alveolar 
process, and the dense epithelial covering is drawn tightly around necks of 
teeth forming a strong resistant, but flexible, cushion to the tissues it protects. 

Q. What has been called the Dental Ligament. 

A. The radiating bundles of fibrous tissue which form the strong attach- 
ment of gum to necks of teeth. 

Q. How far does this attachment to tooth extend from extreme edge. 

A. One-eighth to three-eighths of an inch, varying in different persons and 
about different teeth. 

Q. In what respects does the inner surface of free margin of gums differ 
from other parts. 

A. It is covered with a soft polygonal gland-like epithelium, but it has no 
gland structure. 

Q. What is it called. 

A. The Gingival organ. 

Q. What does it secrete. 

A. A profusion of Mucous Corpuscles. 

Q. When they accumulate and are mixed with micro-organisms what is 
formed under free margins of gums. 

A. A soft, cheesy mass like pus, and often mistaken for it. 

Q. Describe structure of Salivary Glands. 

A. Consist of numerous lobes made up of smaller lobules connected by dense 
areolar tissue, vessels, and ducts. 

Q. What does each lobule consist of 

A. Numerous closed vessicles which open into a common duct. 

Q. What arteries and nerves pass through and lie close to Parotid Gland 

A. External Carotid, Internal Carotid arteries, Internal Jugular vein ; and 
Facial nerve. 

Q. What artery lies in a groove in Submaxillary Gland. 

A. Facial artery. 


Q. In the chemical basis of the body, what is the proportion of oxygen, car- 
bon, hydrogen, and nitrogen taken together. 
A. About ninety-seven per cent. 
Q. What other elements are present in small quantities. 

2 9 

A. Sulphur, chlorine, phosphorous, silica fluorine, sodium, potassium, cal- 
cium, magnesium, and iron. 

Q. What two important groups of substances form the body. 

A. Nitrogenous and non-nitrogenous. 

Q. "Which of these perform the most important functions, and all the active 
portions of the organism. 

A. The Nitrogenous. 

Q. "What are Proteids. 

A. The albumins and albuminoid constituents of the organism. 

Q. "What are they precipitated from. 

A. From solutions by alcohol and different metallic salts, coagulated by 
heat and mineral acids. 

Q. "What do the Carbo-Hydrates include. 

A. Starches and sugars. 

Q. Are Fats widely distributed in plants and animals. 

A. Yes ; they contain little oxygen. 

Q. "What is the function of the Blood. 

A. It distributes nutritious materials to all parts of the system, and collects 
substances no longer needed on account of change going on in the tissues, and 
carries them to organs which discharge them from the body. 

Q. "What is the color of Blood in different parts of the system. 

A. In systemic arteries of a bright scarlet-red ; in corresponding veins of a 
dark bluish color ; in pulmonary artery a dark blue; in pulmonary veins 

Q. "What is the variation in colv>r due to. 

A. Oxygen of the air. 

Q. What is the reaction of the blood. 

A. Alkaline, due to presence of sodium carbonate and disodic phosphate. 

Q. What does the odor of blood depend upon. 

A. Presence of volatile fatty acids. 

Q. "What is the taste of blood. 

A. Saline, due to the salts it contains. 

Q. What is the temperature of the blood. 

A. Varies from 98° F., at surface of body to 107° in hepatic vein. 

Q. How does blood differ in character. 

A. Arterial blood has more oxygen, and is more coagulable ; blood of portal 
vein varies with stages of digestion when it contains more water, albuminous 
matters, and sugars, and less corpuscles ; in hepatic vein there is more sugar, 
but less albumen and fibrin. 

Q. What are White Blood Corpuscles. 

A. Small protoplasmic cells, occuring in large quantities in the lymph ; of a 
finely granular structure, and nuclei ; they have an amoeboid movement and 
migrate through bloodvessel wall and the tissues ; larger than the red disks, 
and have no cell wall. 

Q. What are Red Blood Corpuscles. 

A. They give red color to blood ; soft, elastic, and alter shape when passing 
through small vessels, and then resume normal shape, as soon as pressure is 
removed ; no nuclei ; many in number. 

Q. What is the size of red blood corpuscles of man. 

A. About 1-3200 inch in diameter, and 1-12400 inch thick. 


Q. What is the size of white corpuscles. 

A. About 1-2500 inch in diameter. 

Q. What is the nature of White corpuscles. 

A. Flattened bi-or tri-nucleated cells ; possess a contractile power and 
closely resemble amoebae; most numerous in venous blood; contain several 

Q. What is the function of Red Blood Corpuscles. 

A. To absorb oxygen and carry it to the tissues, all the vital functions 
becoming more active. 

Q. What is the difference in movement between the white and red cor- 

A. The white in the interior of vessels adhere to inner surface, while the red 
move through the centre of stream. 

Q. What is haemoglobin. 

A. The substance that gives red color to corpuscles, and by their aid carries 
oxygen to the tissues ; a crystalline matter. 

Q. What is haematin. 

A. Red coloring matter of the blood. An amorphous principle of the blood, 
with steel-black metallic lustre; not to be confounded with "hematin," a syn- 
onym of haematoxylin, Haematin is the result of decomposition of haemoglobin. 

Q. Name the Gases of the blood. 

A. Chiefly oxygen, carbonic acid, and nitrogen. 

Q. Quantity of blood in body. 

A. Equal to one-thirteenth part of weight of body. 

Q. What is coagulation or clotting of Blood due to. 

A. Presence of fibrin. 

Q. How is the Clot made uj>. 

A. Fibrin forms in fibrils which entangle blood corpuscles, as in a web. 

Q. What may prevent or delay coagulation. 

A. Alkalies or their neutral salts; egg-albumen, syrup, glycerine, water, oil, 
or cold at freezing point. 

Q. What may hasten coagulation. 

A. Contact with any foreign body, heating from 39° to 55° C, or constant 

Q. What is the function of the Heart. 

A. To propel blood through body. 

Q. How does the right side differ from left side of Heart. 

A. The right side takes venous blood from vena cava and propels it through 
lungs to left side. 

Q. What is circulation of right side called. 

A. Pahnonic circulation. 

Q. What is the function of auricle of heart. 

A. To force blood through auriculo-ventricular opening and to supply 

Q. What is the function of Valves of Heart. 

A. They prevent regurgitation of blood. 

Q. How does the Blood circulate through the heart. 

A. It enters right auricle from cavae, and passes from right auriculo-ven- 
tricular opening into right ventricle, then through pulmonary artery into 
lungs ; from lungs through pulmonary veins to left auricle, and through loft 


auriculo-ventricular orifice to left ventricle ; from the ventricles through aorta 
and thus through arterial system. 

Q. What are the movements of the heart. 

A. Contraction, or systole ; expansion, or diastole. 

Q. What are the sounds of the Heart. 

A. First sound, long and dull from closure and vibration of aurieulo-ven- 
tricular valve, contraction of walls of ventricles and apex beat ; second sound, 
short and sharp, from closure of semilunar valves. 

Q. What is the rate of heart beats. 

A. Before birth, per minute, 140-150 ; during 1st year, 125-135 ; 3d year, 
95-100 ; 8th, 9th, to 14th year, 85-90; adult, about 72. 

Q. In what sex is the Pulse most rapid. 

A. Female. 

Q. What effect has posture on pulse. 

A. Erect causes a more rapid pulse than the prostrate; respiratory changes, 
small repeated swallows of water, etc., influence its rate. 

Q. What is meant by blood-pressure. 

A. That under which the stream is kept up by the action of heart and walls 
of blood-vessels. 

Q. What are the nerves which influence blood-pressure called. 

A. Vaso-motor. 

Q. What effect has galvanism on blood-pressure. 

A. It raises it. 

Q. What effect has asphyxia on blood-pressure. 

A. It increases it by stimulation of vaso-motor centre in medulla. 

Q. What assists flow of blood in Capillaries. 

A. Capillary attraction and pressure due to the muscular movements of 
body ; the action of the heart and coats of the arteries. 

Q. What causes the pulse. 

A. A wave of force which passes along column of blood in artery due to 
a single contraction of heart, so that each pulse represents a heart beat, but 
not the blood thrown out at that beat. 

Q. At what speed does the blood circulate. 

A. Thirty-five feet per second. 

Q. What is the object of Respiration. 

A. To bring oxygen of air in close relationship with the haemoglobin in 
blood, and to permit of elimination of carbonic acid gas, and other effete pro- 
ducts from body. 

Q. What do the movements of chest represent. 

A. Enlargement represents inspiration, and contraction expiration. 

Q. What is the function of the pulmonary artery. 

A. Supplies blood for aeration. 

Q. What is the function of bronchial artery. 

A. Supplies blood for nourishment of lung tissue. 

Q. How is blood brought to vesicles and exposed to the air. 

A. The smaller branches of pulmonary artery divide more and more and do 
not anastomose with each other ; the minute capillaries pass between the air 
vesicles, the thin wall of vessel and vesicle permitting a free interchange of 
gases to take place. 

Q. What pathological conditions of blood. 


A. Plethora — increase in volume or quantity ; Anaemia — deficiency of red 
globules and increase in water ; Leucocythemia — increase of white and dimi- 
nution of red corpuscles ; Glycohaemia — excess of sugar ; Uraemia — increase of 
urea ; Cholesteraemia — excess of cholesterine ; Thrombosis and Embolism — 
clotting of blood in vessels and coagula ; Lipaemia — excess of fat ; Melanae- 
mia — pigment in blood. 

Q. Describe Inspiration. 

A. The side walls and front of chest move upward and outward and a 
vacuum is thus made, and air rushes in to equalize the. internal and external 
atmospheric pressure ; the antero-posterior diameter of chest is increased by 
raising of anterior part of ribs, the posterior ends being fast in spinal column; 
the increase in lateral diameter is due to outward movement of ribs ; the 
increase in vertical diameter by descent of diaphragm, its convex surface be- 
coming less arched ; the diaphragm is the most important respiratory muscle. 

Q. Describe Expiration. 

A. These movements occur passively by the weight of chest, which sinks 
down, displacing the air, aided by the elastic tissue of lungs ; when it is 
forced, the abdominal muscles pulldown the chest. 

Q. What is the effect of sex on Respiration. 

A. In males it is largely abdominal ; in females chiefly costal or thoracic. 

Q. What sounds issue from chest. 

A. Respiratory murmurs, caused by passage of air in and out of respiratory 

Q. What is the number of respirations per minute. 

A. Fourteen to twenty; but number is influenced by sex, age, position, and 

Q. Does age affect the amount of C0 5 exhaled. 

A. Yes, it increases from eight to thirty-two years, remains almost station- 
ary from thirty-five to fifty ; after fifty it constantly diminishes, and at 
eighty years is no more than in a child of ten j r ears.' 

Q. What effect has the quickening of respiration on amount of C a . 

A. The quicker, the less amount in each respiration, but aggregate amount 
is increased. 

Q. How much Oxygen is abstracted from every volume of air. 

A. About four and a half per cent. 

Q. What does Ewpnuba signify. 

A. A normal breathing 

Q. What dues apncea signify. 

A. Too much oxygen absorbed blood. 

Q. What does dyspnoea signify. 

A. Labored or difficult breathing. 

Q. What is hiccough. 

A. A sudden inspiration due to descent of diaphragm. 

Q. What are the three forms of Digestion. 

A. Salivary, Gastric and Intestinal. 

Q. What is the function of Salivary Digestion. 

A. To convert starch into sugar. 

Q. On what does Gastric Digestion act.] 

A. Proteids, converting them into peptones. 

Q. What is Intestinal Digestion. 


A. The preparation for assimilation of fats, and conversion of proteids into 

Q. What are the characteristics of Saliva. 

A. A mixture of secretions of the Parotid, Submaxillary and Sublingual 
Glands; tasteless, slightly turbid, distinctly alkaline reaction ; specific gravity 
1.004 to 1.008 ; contains five-tenths per cent, of solids, the most of which are 
organic, as mucin which causes viscidity, traces of albumen and globulin, and 
a peculiar ferment-ptyalin ; the inorganic are salts, the principal one being 
sulphocyanate of potash ; together with salivary corpuscles, epithelial cells, 
and micro-organisms. 

Q. What is the quantity of Saliva secreted in 24 hours. 

A. From 7 to 70 ounces. 

Q. What is the nature of Parotid Saliva. 

A. It contains ptyalin, urea, traces of a volatile acid, and such inorganic 
constituents as salts of soda and potash ; containing more of the ptyalin and 
less of urea than that of the other glands ; it is also much thinner. 

Q. What is the nature of Submaxillary Saliva. 

A. Decidedly alkaline and tenacious or viscid ; contains mucin, but less 
ptyalin than the parotid. 

Q. What is the nature of Sublingual Saliva. 

A. More viscid and cohesive than the others ; contains much mucin, salivary 
corpuscles and sulphocyanate of potash. 

Q. What is the composition of the Oral Fluid composed of all the secretions 
mingled together. 

A. Water, - - - . - 994.10 

Solid Constituents, ... . 5.90 

Epithelium and mucus, ..... 2.13 

Fat, 0.70 

Mucin, ptyalin, and traces of alcoholic extracts, - 1.41 

Sulpho-cyanide of potassium, - 0.10 

Alkalies, earths, and oxide of iron, ... 2.19 

Also small quantities of nitrogen, more oxygen, and yet more of carbonic 
acid gas. 

Q. What is the effect of stimulation. 

A. Increased flow, and glandular vascularity.- 

Q. What effect has mastication on the flow of Saliva. 

A. Increases it. 

Q. What condition may increase the flow of Saliva. 

A. Nausea by a reflex through vagus nerve. 

Q. What is the Physiological action of Saliva. 

A. The transformation of starch into dextrin, and of dextrin into sugar. 

Q. Upon what does the power of saliva to convert starch into sugar (dias- 
taltic) depend. 

A. Upon ptyalin. 

Q. What is Maltose. 

A . Sugar formed by action of saliva on starch. 

Q. What are the mechanical uses of Saliva. 

A. Keeps mouth moist; facilitates speech ; renders mastication easy, and 
also movements of tongue ; dissolves substances, and assists taste, and also 
assists deglutition. 


Q. What muscles are concerned in Mastication. 

A. The combined action of temporal, masseter, and internal pterygoids 
elevate the jaw; the digastrics, mylo-hyoids, genio-hyoids, and platysmas 
depress the jaw ; the displacement of the articular surfaces backward or for- 
ward is produced, when forward by external pterygoids, which pull jaw down 
and forward ; one external pterygoid acting, the jaw is pulled sideways, 
causing a grinding motion ; when backward the digastric and hyoid act. 

Q. What is the influence of Tongue in mastication. 

A. To keep food between teeth, and it is assisted by muscles of lips and 

Q. Describe process of deglutition. 

A. Opening of mouth is closed by orbicularis oris ; the muscles of mastica- 
tion press jaws together ; the tongue is pressed against hard palate, first its 
tip, then middle and root, forcing food backwards ; at same time levator 
palati draws soft palate upward and backward, completely closing the pos- 
terior openings of nasal cavities, and muscles of larynx firmly close rima 
glottidis; after anterior arch is passed, the food is prevented from returning 
to mouth by palato-glossi muscles ; and the constrictors of the pharynx urge 
it on* 7 to oesophagus; and it is further propelled by the muscular fibres of 
oesophagus which contract peristaltically when there is forced deglutition, 
as ordinarily the food is projected into oesophagus by the voluntary muscles. 

Q. What nerves govern deglutition. 

A. The efferent nerves. 

Q. What govern the movements of the oesophagus. 

A. The vagus and trifacial. 

Q. What is the nature of Gastric Juice. 

A. Rather clear, colorless (or straw-colored), of acid reaction, sour taste, 
peculiar odor. 

Q. What is the quantity secreted in twenty-four hours. 

A. From eight to fourteen pounds. 

Q. What does it contain. 

A. Pepyin, hydrochloric acid, the chief acid, and a little lactic acid. 

Q. What is the function of the Pepsin, and Lactic Acid. 

A. Pepsin dissolves proteids ; while lactic acid digests them like hydro- 
chloric acid. 

Q. What is Chyme. 

A. Mixture of food and gastric juice. 

Q. What is thu effect of gastric juice upon proteids. 

A. Changes them into acid albumen, or syntonin, which is at once changed 
into prupeptone or hemi-albuminose ; the latter being converted into peptone 
which is absorbed into the blood from small intestine, and changed back into 
proteids and so deposited in the tissues. 

Q. What other special ferment is in stomach. 

A. Milk-curdling ferment. 

Q. What is the nature of the Pancreatic juice. 

A. Thick, transparent, odorless, saltish taste. 

Q. What is its action. 

A. Powerfully digestive. 

Q. What is the function of Pancreatic Juice. 

A. Containing four hydrolytic ferments, it is a very important digestive fluid. 


Q. What is its action on fats. 

A. Forms them into a fine emulsion and at last into fatty acids, 

Q. "When is the pancreatic juice poured out. 

A. When the food enters small intestine from stomach. 

Q. "What are the functions of the Liver. 

A. Secretions of bile ; formation of glycogen, and destruction of worn out 
"blood cells. 

Q. What is .BiZe. 

A. A yellowish brown or dark green transparent fluid with neutral reaction 
and bitter taste ; it is the juice secreted by the liver. 

Q. What does it contain. 

A. Mucus from gall-bladder ; bile acids, glyco-cholie, and tauro-cholic acid 
the most abundant in man. 

Q. What is Cholestrin. 

A. An univalent alcohol found in solution in bile. 

Q. What quantity of bile is secreted per day. 

A. About seventeen ounces. 

Q. What are the functions of bile. 

A. Emulsification of fats, lubrication of walls of intestine and to facilitate 
absorption of fats ; prevents decomposition and stimulates peristalic action. 

Q. What is the function of large intestine. 

A. It absorbs liquids from fecal matter of small intestine. 

Q. How does absorption occur. 

A. In two ways : By means of blood-capillaries and the lacteals. 

Q. What are absorbed by capillaries and by lacteals. 

A. The first absorb sugars and proteids, and the latter the fats. 

Q. Where is the greatest amount of absorption carried on. 

A. In the upper half of the small intestine. 

Q. What three forces are in action in absorption of digested food. 

A. Endosmosis, diffusion, and filtration. 

Q. What is Endosmosis. 

A. The change which occurs between two fluids capable of forming an 
intimate mixture with each other through an animal membrane. 

Q. What is Diffusion. 

A. Mixing of two liquids, one over the other, in a vessel without presence of 
a septum. 

Q. What is the normal temperature of man. 

A. 98%° F. 

Q. What difference in temperature between various parts of the body. 

A. Surfaces of hands and feet cooler than any other portion, liver as high 
at times as 105° F. 

Q. What is the source of animal heat. 

A. The potential energy taken into body with food, and with oxygen during 
respiration ; the amount depending upon that of kinetic energy liberated. 

Q. What are the direct sources of heat. 

A. The blood is charged with more carbon, hydrogen and oxygen than is 
required for repair of tissues, and these gases uniting with the sulphates 
develop heat by chemical means, while the rest of heat of body is developed 
by a slovver combustion. 

Q. What keeps temperature of body uniform. 


A. Circulation of blood, which distributes heat evenly. 

Q. What effect has perspiration on heat of body. 

A. By its evaporation it tends greatly to dissipate heat formed too rapidly. 

Q. What is Asphyxia due to. 

A. Failure of respiration. 

Q. What is Secretion. 

A. The separation from the blood of some product, either directly or 
indirectly, by the vital process peculiar to a gland or membrane ; the Kidney 
is an example of an excreting gland ; the pancreas or mammary gland, an 
example of a secreting gland. 

Q. "What is the function of the Kidneys. 

A. The secretion of urine. 

Q. What is the principal solid of the urine. 

A. Urea, the substance by which the nitrogen of decomposed tissue is 
given off. 

Q. What condition occurs when urea is not freely eliminated. 

A. Uraemia. 

Q. What is the origin of urea. 

A. Derived from portions of unassimilated elements of nitrogenous food, 
and from breaking down of tissue, or tissue waste. 

Q. What is uric acid. 

A. An acid in small quantity in human urine. 

Q. How much of the body is made up of water. 

A. 58.5 per cent., continually taken in and given off. 

Materia. Medica and Therapeutics. 

Q. What precautions should be observed in the administration of Ether, 
Chloroform, etc. 

A. Assured that patient is not affected with any serious disease of heart, 
lungs, or brain ; loosen clothing about neck and chest ; remove artificial teeth, 
if any are worn. 

Q. What inhaling apparatus is necessary. 

A. Sponge, napkin, or handkerchief, placed inside a cone made of stiff 
paper or formed of a towel, with small opening at apex for admission of air ; 
or a wad of lint can be held in palm of hand, and anaesthetic poured on 

Q. How should the inhalation be conducted. 

A. Commence cautiously, patient directed to breathe naturally and to banish 
all fears, and obey such instructions as raising the hand or opening eyelids 
when desired ; the napkin or sponge held three or four inches from face, 
gradually bringing it closer to prevent irritation of air passages, and patient 
directed to make full inspirations. 

Q. What are the stages of anaesthesia. 

A. First, slight relaxation ; second, tetanic or convulsive ; and third, com- 
plete relaxation and unconsciousness. 

Q. During a favorable administration what is condition of patient when 
fully aneestheticised. 

A. Face cool; profuse perspiration; eyes closed; insensibility to touch; 
somewhat contracted pupils ; pulse somewhat slower than normal. 

Q. What is the order in which the nerve centres are affected by the anaes- 

A. Cerebrum, cerebellum, spinal cord, medulla oblongata. 

Q. What is the time required for complete anaesthesia. 

A. For ether — four to twenty four minutes, average time eight minutes. 
For chloroform — two and one-half to fifteen minutes, average time seven 

Q. What are the conditions rendering anaesthesia dangerous. 

A. Affections of heart, such as fatty degeneration, valvular lesions ; disease 
of kidnej T s ; tumors of brain ; respiratory obstructions, thoracic tumors ; 
hypertrophied tonsils ; aneurism of vessels ; and chronic alcoholism. 

Q. What conditions are to be avoided when giving anaesthetics. 

A. Full stomach ; empty stomach from long fasting ; excitement. 

Q. What is the treatment of Dangerous Symptoms. 

A. When heart's action is suspended stop administration, place body in a 
reclining position, if necessary invert body, and admit air freely ; the failure 
of respiration indicates the drawing forward of tongue, and for serious casea 
the inhala' ion, with great care, of two or three drops of nitrate of amyl, also 
the inhalation of ammonia. Galvanism (the positive pole to nostril and 
negative pole over diaphragm), and artificial respiration and warmth, with 
brisk friction upward of extremities. 

Fire or light in a room filled with ether vapor, which is heavier than air 
and very explosive, is dangerous. 

Q. What is the value of Nitrous Oxide as a general anaesthetic. 

A. Pleasant and safe, transient nature of its effects, no unpleasant after- 

\J. What is its disadvantage. 

A. The shortness of its anaesthesia. 

Q. How is Nitrous Oxide Gas administered. 

A. Same care should be observed as with ether or chloroform. Seat patient 
in a horizontal position in an operating chair with back lowered, dress about 
throat and waist loose, and no food for two hours before the inhalation ; 
a rubber mouth-prop placed between teeth to prevent closure of jaws. The 
patient is then directed to take full, natural and deep inspirations of gas, the 
nose being held or covered to prevent entrance of air. 

Q. What are its effects. 

A. Strong, involuntary respirations, with snoring, more or less livid appear- 
ance of lips, cheeks and finger nails, and loss of sense of touch. 

Q. What is a reliable test for complete anaesthesia. 

A. Loss of sensibility to touch in conjunctiva. 

Q. What quantity of N. O. Gas is required. 

A. Five to fifteen or more gallons. 

Q. What are the different stages under N. 0. Gas. 

A. First stage, muscular activity; second stage, muscular rigidity; it is con- 
sidered dangerous on account of asphyxia, to carry it to muscular relaxation, 
hence the necessity for use of mouth-prop. 

Q. What is Bromide of Ethyl, or Hydrobromic Ether C 2 H 5 Br. 

A. A colorless, volatile fluid with an agreeable odor, somewhat like 


ether, and pungent taste; not inflammable or irritant ; obtained by dis- 
tilling bromide of potassium and sulphuric ether with chloride of lime. 

Q. What are its medical properties and action. 

A. Anaesthetic : Its administration is somewhat dangerous having a poison- 
ous action on centres of respiration ; it decreases the heart force. 

Q. How is Bromide of Ethyl administered. 

A. The same as Ether and Chloroform, one drachm being used at the com- 
mencement of the inhalation, and deep, full inspirations taken. 

Q. How are the Salts of Cocaine used as local anaesthetic. 

A. For extraction of teeth and other dental operations, by hypodermic injec- 
tion, or by application to gum on either side of the tooth ; two or three ap- 
plications being made at intervals of (wo minutes. For devitalizing Pulps, 
the arsenious acid is combined with cocaine; it is also applied to hypersensi- 
tive dentine. 

Q. What is Alcohol, C H 6 0. 

A. A colorless, inflammable fluid, with pungent odor, and burning taste, 
soluble in water and ether, and vaporizable by heat, obtained by repeated 
distillations from fermented grain or starchy substances. 

Q. What are its Medical properties and Action. 

A. A powerful diffusible stimulant, causing general exhilaration; in large 
doses depressant, with effects of narcotic poisons resulting in delirium, coma, 
and death. 

Q. What is the composition of commercial Alcohol. 

A. Ninety per cent, of absolute alcohol and ten per cent, of water ; absolute 
alcohol is generally ninety-eight per cent, in strength ; whiskey (spiritus 
fermenti) from rye, corn, barley, and potatoes, contains forty-five to fifty per 
cent of alcohol. 

Q. What are its Therapeutic and Dental uses. 

A. Stimulant in acute inflammations, acute neuralgias, etc.; in chloroform 
narcosis whiskey will sustain heart and prolong anaesthesia, also wine in 
nitrous oxide gas administrations ; acts as a styptic by coagulating blood and 
contracting mouth of vessel ; as an antiseptic for suppurating wounds, and as 
a canal dressing; for softened and sensitive dentine; for drying cavities before 
filling, absolute alcohol is employed. 

Q. What is Nitrite of Amyl, C 6 H„ N 2 . 

A. A clear, yellowish, oily liquid, with etheral odor, very volatile and in- 
flammable ; insoluble in water ; but soluble in alcohol, ether, and chloroform ; 
derived from action of nitric or nitrous acid upon amylic alcohol. 

Q. What are its Medical Properties and action. 

A. Used by inhalation ; causes great activity of heart, dilation of vessels, 
flushing of face, sense of fullness of brain, and complete resolution of muscular 
system, and arrests functional activity of muscles; a powerful stimulant of 
the heart. 

Q. What are its Therapeutical and Dental uses. 

A. Employed in syncope, chloroform narcosis, epileptic attacks, and other 
convulsive and spasmodic diseases. 

Q. What is the Dose of Nitrite of Amyl. 

A. From ij to iij minims. 

Q. What is Myrrh. 

A. A resinous exudation from a small tree of Arabia and Africa; in small 


masses of a reddish-yellow color, brittle and translucent, with aromatic taste, 
and peculiar fragrant odor; very astringent. 

Q. What are its Dental uses. 

A. la form of tincture, diluted, as a gargle and mouth-wash; stimulates 
spongy and inflammed gums ; in alveolar pyorrhoea, in full strength. 

Q. What is Capsicum. 

A. Cayenne Pepper, fruit of a tropical plant ; pungent odor, hot taste ; 
contains an acrid volatile principle called capsicine. 

Q. What are its Medical Properties and Action. 

A. A powerful stimulant, causes warmth of stomach and a glow over entire 
body ; stimulates circulation and digestion ; in excessive doses an irritant 

Q. What is the dose of Capsicum. 

A. Dose v minims to one drachm, of the tincture ; v grains to x, of the powder. 

Q. What are its Dental uses. 

A. In form of tincture or plaster in periodontitis; as a stimulating gargle. 

Q. What is Oil of Gloves. 

A. A clear, colorless oil from flowers of an evergreen myrtle of the Indies; 
pungent, spicy taste, fragrant odor. 

Q. What are its Medical Properties and Action. 

A. An aromatic stimulant, and antiseptic ; employed to relieve nausea, and 
griping, and to modify action of other medicines. 

Q. Dose of Oil of Cloves. 

A. One to five minims. 

Q. What are its Dental uses. 

A. To relieve odontalgia by its stimulating effect. 

Q. What is Eugenol. 

A. An active principle of oil of cloves, sometimes called an acid ; a clear, 
colorless oil, with taste and smell of oil of cloves. 

Q. What are its Dental uses. 

A. An antiseptic in treatment of putrescent pulps, etc. 

Q. What is Cinchona. 

A. The bark of South American trees of same name, the medicinal proper- 
ties cf which depend upon the alkaloids they contain, at least two per cent, of 
which is Quinine. 

Q. What are its Medicinal Properties and Action. 

A. The varieties of cinchona are named according to their color — yellow, pale 
and red, the yellow powder being more bitter and containing more quinine. 
Cinchona is a bitter tonic, astringent, antiseptic, and antipyretic. The alka- 
loid quinine is generally employed. 

Q. What is the dose of Cinchona and Quinine. 

A. Of powdered Cinchona, ten grains to three drachms; of extract, one to 
ten grains ; of Sulphate of Quinine, one to twenty grains ; of Sulphate of 
Cinchonidine, two to thirty grains (half the strength of quinine). 

Q. What are the Dental uses of Cinchona and Quinine. 

A. As a tonic for neuralgia from malaria ; as an antiseptic and germicide; 
and as an ingredient of dentifrices for its tonic and antiseptic properties. 

Q. What is Eucalyptus derived from. 

A. The leaves of an Australian tree, but now found in other countries, 
Eucalyptus globulus. 

4 o 

Q. What are the medicinal properties of the leaves due to. 

A. A volatile oil — oleum eucalypti — eucalyptol. 

Q. What are its Medicinal Properties and Action. 

A. It promotes appetite and digestion ; increases heart's action ; it is anti- 
septic, disinfectant, diaphoretic, and sedative ; and anti-malarial by its 

Q. What are the doses of its preparations. 

A. Of Extract — one to fifteen grains; of Fluid extract — twenty minims to one 
drachm ; of Tincture — one-half to two drachms ; of the Oil — five to twenty 
minims in emulsion. 

Q. What are its Dental uses. 

A. As an antiseptic, either alone or combined with iodoform, for putrescent 
pulps, and alveolar abscess, necrosis and caries of maxillary bones. 

Q. What is the derivation of Iodine. 

A. Principally from Marine Plants. 

Q. What are its Properties. 

A. Non-metallic, in form of bluish-black crystalline scales of a metallic 
lustre, peculiar odor, hot acrid taste, and a neutral reaction ; readily soluble 
in alcohol and ether. 

Q. What are the principal preparations and their Doses. 

A. Tincture — one to five minims; Compound tincture — one to ten minims, 

Q. What are the Medical Properties and Action of Iodine. 

A. In small doses, stimulant and tonic ; locally an irritant, which effect is 
diminished when it is combined with potassium; hence iodide of potassium is 
usually employed internally. 

Q. What are the Dental uses of Iodine. 

A. In form of tincture for periodontitis, affections of gums, fungous growths, 
putrescent pulps, alveolar abscess ; for periodontitis combined with aconite, 
and for ulcerations with carbolic acid ; mixed with carbolic acid it is rendered 

Q. What is tlie derivation of Iodoform. 

A. From the action of chlorinated lime upon iodide of potassium ; in the 
form of small yellow crystals of a soft touch, sweetish taste, and unpleasant 
odor; insoluble in water, but soluble in alcohol, ether, chloroform, and essen- 
tial oils. 

Q. What are its Medical Properties and Action. 

A. Antiseptic and Germicide ; tonic, anodyne, alterative ; in large doses 

Q. What is the dose of Iodoform. 
A. One to five grains in pill. 
Q. What are its Dental uses. 

A. Antiseptic for alveolar abscess, putrescent pulps, pyorrhoea alveolaris, 
etc., often combined with oil of cloves, and eucalyptus. 
Q. What is the derivation of Iodol. 

A. From action of iodine on certain constituents of animal oil; in the form 
of a grayish-white powder ; odorless ; slight taste ; soluble in alcohol ether, 
chloroform, carbolic acid, etc. 
Q. What are its Medical Properties and Action. 
A. Antiseptic, deodorant, germicide, and an anaesthetic ; its physiological 


actions being the same as those of iodoform ; used on wounds, ulcers etc. 

Q. What are its Dental uses. 

A. Same as those of Iodoform. 

Q. What is Arlstol derived from. 

A. By adding a solution of iodine in iodide of potassium to a solution of 
hydrate of sodium containing thymol ; a red-brown non-erystallizable powder; 
insoluble in water and glycerine, but soluble in alcohol, and readily so in 
chloroform, ether, and essential oils ; slight odor of thymol. 

Q. What are its Medical Properties and Action. 

A. Not irritant or poisonous ; an excellent antiseptic in ulcers, abscesses, 
cutaneous diseases, etc. 

Q. What are its Dental uses. 

A. As an antiseptic for gangrenous pulps, root-canals, etc., alveolar pyor- 
rhoea, combined with oil of cassia, acute pulpitis ; combined with collodion as 
a pulp-capping material. 

Q. In what form is Iron used medicinally. 

A. In form of Salts. 

Q. What are the Medical Properties and Action oi Iron. 

A. Salts of iron improve quality of blood; increase the red corpuscles, pro- 
mote appetite, and improve digestion, being an efficient tonic; large doses 
cause nausea and act as irritants; their prolonged use in small doses exhaust 
gastric glands by over stimulation; externally used act as styptics in arrest- 
ing hemorrhage. 

Q. Yv hat are the contra-indications. 

A. In a case of plethora, especially when hemorrhagic tendency is present. 

Q. What are the doses of the Tincture of Chloride of Iron, and Powdered 

A. Dose of the Tincture of Chloride of Iron, five to twenty minims ; of the 
Powdered Sulphate, one-half to three grains in pill ; the solution of subsul- 
phate of iron is only used externally for its styptic action. 

Q. What are its Dental uses. 

A. Styptic in hemorrhage from tooth extraction, gums and mucous mem- 

Q. How is Peroxide of Hydroyen, 1I 2 Og, obtained. 

A. By combining an extra molecule of oxygen with hydrogen monoxide. 

Q. What are its Properties and Actions. 

A. Inodorous, colorless, almost tasteless, transparent liquid ; antiseptic and 
disinfectant; internally used for fevers, bronchial affections, phthisis, dip- 
theria, etc., locally for its antiseptic, and pus-destroying property. 

Q. What is the Dose of Peroxide of Hydrogen. 

A. One-half to two drachms. 

Q. What are its Dental uses. 

A. As an antiseptic, &c, in alveolar abscess, inflammation and ulceration 
of mucous membrane, alveolar pyorrhoea, fungous growths, etc. 

Q. How is Permanganate of Potash (K 2 Mn 2 8 ) prepared. 

A. By fusing black oxide of manganese with chlorate of potassium and 
caustic potassa ; in form of dark purple crystals, soluble in water ; sweetish 

Q. What are its Medical Properties and Actions. 

A. Internally, stimulant, mild escharotic, and a powerful disinfectant and 


deodorizer in abscess, ulcers, caries of bone, cancer, etc. Dose for internal use 
one-quarter to one grain ; for external use one drachm to v-x ounces of water. 
Q. What are its Dental uses. 

A. For abscesses, diseases of antrum, ulcers of mouth with offensive breath, 
and fetid discharge, necrosis and caries of maxillary bones. 
Q. What is the source of Aconite. 

A. From root of Aconitum Naptllus, the active principle being an alkaloid- 

Q. What are its Medical Properties and Actions. 

A. A powerful nervous sedative, and in large doses a poison, depressing 
heart, respiratory organs and spine ; it proves fatal by paralyzing heart and 
respiration; locally applied, arrests inflammation by paralyzing peripheral 
ends of -nerves and favoring resolution ; it limits extent of abscess. 
Q. Doses of principal preparations of aconite. 

A. Of Extract — one-half to one grain ; of Fluid extract — one-quarter to two 
minims; of Tincture — one-half to four minims ; fifteen drops is a poisonous 
Q. What are its Dental uses. 

A. Internally in chronic cases of neuralgia; locally for alveoiar abscess, 
periodontitis (equal parts of tincture aconite and tincture iodine). 
Q. Treatment of Aconite Poisoning. 

A. Evacuate stomach ; administer stimulants, apply warmth to extremities 
and maintain recumbent position. 
Q. What is the source of Op:;cm. 

A. Concrete, milky, exudation of capsules of Papaver Somniferum. 
Q. In what form does it occur. 

A. In brownish masses of a narcotic, earthy odor, and bitter taste. 
Q. What are its Medical Properties and Actions. 

A. Stimulant, narcotic, anodyne, antispasmodic, and intoxicant; it restrains 
movements and checks secretions of stomach, and intestinal canal. In mod- 
erate doses, stimulates inhibitory nerves of intestine, and in excessive doses 
paralyzes them. 
Q. What is the dose of opium. 
A. One-quarter to three grains. 
Q. What is Morphine. 

A. One of the seventeen alkaloids of opium; in form of colorless, flat prisms, 
odorless, and with a \ery bitter taste. 

Q. What are its Medical Properties and Actions. 

A. Hypnotic, narcotic, and anodyne ; it primarily affects nervous system; 
in small doses depitsses action of spinal cord ; in larger doses stimulates it 
even to convulsions ; hypodermically injected it is less apt to affect appetite 
and bowels than opium by mouth ; it produces a stuporous sleep, with irregu- 
lar and slow respiration, clammy skin, contracted pupils; in other cases coma- 
vigil and delirium. 
Q. What is the Dose of Morphine. 
A. One-twentieth to one-twelfth of a grain. 
Q. What are the principal preparations of opium. 

A. Pulvus opii-powdered opium. Dose one-sixth to two grains ; Tincture of 
opium, laudanum, dose twenty-five drops or minims, equal to one grain 
of opium; Camphorated Tincture of opium, Paregoric, Dose, one drachm to 


one ounce > for infants five to twenty drops ; one-half ounce contains one 
grain of opium ; Dovers Powder, Dose, five to fifteen grains. 

Q. What are the Dental uses of Morphine. 

A. Anodyne : for pulpitis, ingredient of nerve-paste, for sensitive dentine, 
neuralgia, etc. 

Q. What are the dental uses of Opium. 

A. In convulsions of teething; mercurial salivation, periodontitis, inflamed 
gums and mucous membrane; injections in alveolar abscess ; generally used in 
form of the wine or tincture. 

Q. What is Sulphate of Atropine. 

A. Atropine is one of the two alkaloids of belladonna; obtained by adding 
mixture of sulphuric acid to etheral solution of atropine ; formula Ci 7 , H a3 , 
N 3 ; narcotic, anodyne, stimulant, and antispasmodic — same properties and 
action as belladonna. 

Q. What is the Dose of Sulphate of Atropine. 

A. 1-120 to 1-60 of a grain; hypodermically — 2 minims to 1-120 grain. 

Q. What are its Dental uses. 

A. Pain cf pulpitis and periodontitis ; ingredient of a nerve paste. 

Q. What is Sulphate of Quinine. 

A. Quiniais one of the alkaloids of cinchona; sulphate of quinine is obtained 
by boiling yellow cinchona bark in hydrochloric acid water ; a valuable tonic 
and antiperiodic, antiseptic and stimulant, in the form of colorless, light silky 
crystals soluble in alcohol and ether, and also in sulphuric acid water ; very 
bitter, and inodorous. 

Q. What are its Dental uses. 

A. In Periodontitis, facial neuralgia, especially of malarial origin, cancrum- 
oris, apthous ulcerations ; as an ingredient of dentifrices. 

Q. What are the symptoms of Cinchonism from large doses of quinine. 

A. Fullness and constriction of head, cerebral anaemia, pallor, tinnitus 
aurium, vertigo, staggering, amaurosis and deafness, dilated pupils, delirium, 
coma, and in animals convulsions. 

Q. What is the treatment. 

A. Purge, brandy, hot coffee, or dose of ergot. 

Q. What are the principal Zinc Salts. 

A. Chloride, sulphate, acetate, and oxide. 

Q. What are their Medical Properties and Actions. 

A. In small doses tonic and astringent, in larger doses emetic, and in still 
larger corrosive poisons. 

Q. What is Sulphate of Zinc. 

A. A specific emetic acting with little depression. 

Q. What is Chloride of Zinc- 

A. A powerful escharotic; also a deodorized and disinfectant; it promotes 
healthly granulations applied to indolent ulcers, distroys diseased tissue and 
promotes healthy action in adjacent parts. 

Q What are its Dental uses. 

A. Obtunding sensitive dentine, styptic for superficial hemorrhage from 
gums and mucous membrane, injection for chronic alveolar abscess, and dis- 
eases of antrum ; also to arrest recession of gum and absorption of alveolar 
process ; in solution it is one of the ingredients of oxychloride of zinc filling 


Q. What is Oxide of Zinc. 

A. Tonic and antispasmodic, large doses causing vomiting and purging ; on 
an empty stomach causes nausea. 

Q. What are its Dental uses. 

A. Internally for convulsions of dentition in doses one-half to five grains ; 
locally as one of the ingredients of zinc filling materials, combined with 
chloride of zinc solution, and with glacial phosphoric acid — the latter known 
as oxyphosphate of zinc ; combined with carbolic acid for capping pulps. 

Q. What is Iodide of Zinc. 

A. A local stimulant and escharotie ; internally tonic, astringent, and anti- 
spasmodic in doses of one to five grains, in form of syrup. 

Q. What are its Dental uses. 

A. Locally for alveolar pyorrhoea in connection with peroxide of hydrogen, 
also in tumors of mouth, enlargement of tonsils, chronic abscesses. 

Q. What is Sulphate of Zinc. 

A. Tonic, astringent and antispasmodic, in doses of one-fourth to six grains 
the latter being the emetic dose. 

Q. What are its Dental uses. 

A. Externally in gangrene of mouth, diseases of antrum, ulcerations of 
mucous membrane, and indolent ulcers. 

Q. What is Aromatic Sulphuric Acid. 

A. Elixir of Vitriol — sulphuric acid, alcohol, ginger and cinnamon. 

Q. What are its Medical Properties and Actions. 

A. Tonic and astringent, stimulates to healthy action, Dose : five to thirty 
minims. Used in hemorrhages of lungs, etc., debility, night sweats, convales- 
cence from fevers, dysentery, etc. Externally : applied to carious bone, ulcers, 
necrosis, chronic alveolar abscesses, cancrum oris, stomatitis (largely diluted). 

Q. What is Nitric Acid. 

A. Aqua fortis — sulphuric acid acting upon nitrate of potash or soda ; a 
powerful caustic and escharotie ; colorless when pure, emitting acrid, corro- 
sive fumes. Diluted form, ten per cent, absolute alcohol, is used internally 
as a tonic and refrigerant. Dose of diluted acid two to fifteen drops in water. 

Q. What are the Dental uses of Nitric Acid. 

A. As a caustic for devitalizing pulps of teeth, malignant ulcers of mouth, 
cancrum oris. 

Q. What is Bichloride of Mercury, Mercuric Chloride, Hg Cl s . 

A. Corrosive Sublimate — one of the products of the distillation of a sodium 
chloride and mercuric sulphate (the other product being sodium sulphate) in 
the form of colorless crystalline masses, inodorous, acrid, styptic taste, fusible, 
soluble in sixteen parts of water, seven parts of alcohol and ether. 

Q. What are its Medical Properties and Actions. 

A. One of the most efficient and active salts of mercury; internally em- 
ployed in dysentery, chronic diarrhoea, syphilis, skin diseases, etc. Exter- 
nally as an antiseptic or antizymotic, disinfectant and germicide, or bac- 
tericide, it has scarcely any superior ; it is a corrosive poison and great 
care is necessary in its use. Dose internally, one-thirtieth to one-tenth of a 
grain in pill. 

Q. What are the antidotes. 

A. Albumen, wheat-Hoar, milk. 

Q. What are its Dental uses. 


A. For alveolar abscess, disinfecting root canals, putrescent pulps, diseases 
of antrum, etc. 

Q. In what strength is it safe to use its solutions. 

A. One to five thousand of water, to one to two thousand, the latter with 

Q. What is the difference between calomel and corrosive sublimate. 

A. Calomel is mild chloride of mercury, Hg CI ; Corrosive Sublimate is 
Hg CI,. 

Q. What is Nitrate of Silver, Ag No 3 . 

A. Lunar caustic — obtained by dissolving silver in nitric acid; in form of 
colorless shining crystals, soluble in water, and of a metallic styptic taste. 

Q. What are its Medical Properties and Actions. 

A. Powerfully caustic and astringent, a stimulant of heart and nerves 
sedative, and antispasmodic. 

Q. What is the Dose. 

A. One-sixth of a grain, gradually increased to one grain in pill. 

Q. What is the antidote. 

A. Common salt — chloride of sodium. 

Q. What are its antagonists. 

A. Tannic acid, and vegetable extracts. 

Q. What are its Dental uses. 

A. Styptic, although the clot from it is soluble in albumen; obtunder of 
hypersensitive dentine (applied in stick form, or by dipping end of silver 
wire in nitric acid), especially when it is due to abrasion; ulcerated mucous 
membrane, etc. 

Q. What is the effect when it is applied to mucous membrane. 

A. First it whitens the surface by combining with coagulated albumen, but 
finally blackens it, owing to the partial reduction of the silver by sulphuretted 
hydrogen of atmosphere 

Q. What is Hydrochloric Acid, H CI. 

A. Muriatic acid — colorless when pure, yellow on exposure ; caustic taste; 
volatile, with a dense white, suffocating vapor. 

Q. What are its Medical Properties and Actions. 

A. Caustic, escharotic, and disinfectant ; the diluted acid for internal use, 
is tonic, refrigerant, and astringent. 

Q. What is the dose of Diluted Hydrochloric acid. 

A. Dose five to twenty minims. 

Q. What are its Dental uses, 

A. For inflamed and ulcerated mucous membrane and gums ; in Laboratory 
as a flux in soldering. 

Q. What is Pepsin. 

A. An organic ferment which forms digestive principle of gastric j uice ; 
usually obtained from mucous membrane of pig's stomach, or from calf and 

Q. Medical Properties and Action. 

A. It digests nitrogenous principles of food (albumen, casein, fibrin, etc.,) 
converting them into peptones for assimilation, aided by lactic acid. 

Q. What are its Dental uses. 

A. For putrid pulps ; and combined with hydrochloric acid for devitalizing 

4 6 

Q. What is Thymol obtained from. 

A From volatile oils of Thymus vulgaris ; in form of large prismatic white 
crystals ; odor of thyme ; pungent aromatic flavor. 

Q. Medical Properties and Actions. 

A. Acrid properties similar to carbolic acid, and like it combines with 
animal tissue and prevents putrefaction; externally antiseptic, andantiferment 

Q. What are its Dental uses. 

A. Combined with glycerine in form of Glycorole of Thymol, is a valuable 
antiseptic for putrescent pulps, ulcers of month, wounds, etc., also to arrest 
putrefactive process in chronic pulpitis, alveolar abscesses, also in^stomatitis. 

Q. What is Menthol. 

A. Peppermint Camphor, obtained by cooling the oil distilled from the 
herb of mentha arvensis and mentha 'piperita ; in colorless crystals with taste 
and .smell of peppermint, soluble in alcohol and ether. 

Q. What are its Medical Properties and Actions. 

A. Anodyne, antiseptic and antispasmodic. 

Q. What is the Dose. 

A. One-tenth to one-sixth of a grain. 

Q. What are its Dental uses. 

A. Facial neuralgia, odontalgia, sensitive dentine, decomposing pulps, 
necrosed teeth, root-canals, etc. — used externally. 

Q. What is Chloro-Pheniaue, C 6 H« (0. H.) CI. 

A. A nearly saturated aqueous solution of chloro-phenic acid combined 
with antiseptic essential oils. 

Q. What are its Medical Properties and Actions. 

A. Non-poisonous, non-irritant, antiseptic, with antizymotic and germicidal 
properties eqivalent to those of a 20 per cent-solution of carbonic acid. 

Q. What are its Dental uses. 

A. For catarrhal inflammation of mouth, alveolar pyorrhoea, menstruum 
in devitalizing paste, pulp canals for putrescent pulps, early stages of perio- 
dontitis, etc. 

Q. How do the Volatile or Essential Oils differ from Fixed Oils. 

A. The essential oils are composed of carbon and hydrogen : the fixed oils 
are compounds of carbon, hydrogen, and oxygen. 

Q. Name some of the Essential Oils which are obtunders of sensitive dentine 
and antiseptics. 

A. Oils of peppermint, cloves, caraway, cajeput, mustard, and turpentine, 
cassia, cinnamon, thyme, eugenol, eucalyptol, peppermint, caraway, mustard, 

Q. What is Dr. Black's dressing for putrid pulp-canals and abscesses. 

A. Oil of cassia, 2 parts ; oil of wintergreen, 3 parts ; mix and add carbolic 
acid (melted crj\stals), 1 part; known as 1, 2, 3 mixture. 

Q. What other combination is used for same affections. 

A. Eugenol, or oil of cloves, and iodoform. 



Q. What does chemistry investigate. 

A. Composition of substances around us, changes in them, and laws that 
govern these changes. 

Q. Into what are all substances chemically divided. 

A. Into compound substances and simple elements. 

Q. Describe each. 

A. Compound : Those which can be broken up into simpler substances, a 
H 2 into H aud ; Simple : Substances which cannot be broken up into any- 
thing more simple, as H. 0. N. C. S-, etc. 

Q. What properties has an acid. 

A. Acrid or sour taste when dissolved in H 2 O ; changes color of organic 
substances, as litmus from blue to red ; contains H, which can be replaced by 
metals a salt being formed. 

Q. What properties has an alkali. 

A. Directly opposite those of an acid, taste of lye, changes red litmus to 
blue; acted on by acids from salts. 

Q. What is an alkaloid. 

A. A vegetable alkali; the active principle of drugs, and on it the activity 

Q. What is dialysis. 

A. The power certain substances have of dialyzing or passing through moist 

Q. What are colloids. 

A Substances that will not pass through moist membrane. 

Q. What are crystalloids. . 

A. Substances that dialyze rapidly, and assume shape of crystals. 

Q. What is an anhydride. 

A. A substance which forms an acid when dissolved in H 2 O. as C 2 + H» 
= Hi C O s carbonic acid. »■ 

Q. What is meant by a chemical equation. 

A. A collection of formulae, signs, and symbols, and implies that a chemical 
action is to take place, or has taken place. 

Q. Examine following equations and if any errors correct them. 

CaC0 3 = CaO + CO. 

Xa O H + H CI = Na CI + H a O. 

Fe + 2 H CI = Fe CI + H. 

2 Na CI + H a S0 4 = Na 2 S0 4 + H CI. 

A. All are correct. 

Q. What is meant by chemical action. 

A. Action or force which takes place between chemical substances — called 
chemism or chemical affinity, 

Q. Difference between a chemical element and a compound. 

A. First, is a substance which cannot be reduced any lower, a simple sub- 
stance ; second, is one which can be reduced into its compound parts — made 
up of two or more substances. 

Q. What is Atomic Weight. 


A. The weight of an atom or substance as compared to the weight of some 
atom taken as a standard. The atom of H is lightest and is used as a 
t> Q. What is a Molecular Weight. 

A. The sum of the addition of weights of all the actions of the several 
elements which have united to form a compound body. 

Q. What is meant by calling chlorine a monad, oxygen a dyad, nitrogen a 
triad, and carbon a tetrad. 

A. Elements combine in different proportions; this is called quantivalenee 
or valence or atonicityj it is the power of attraction which atoms of elements 
have of attracting and holdiug in combination 1, 2, 3 or 4 atoms of some other 
element; H is used as the standard, and combining power of atoms compared 
with combining power of atoms of H, gives the valence of the element. Those 
having combining power of one, as CI, as compared with, atoms of H, are 
called Monads ; those having combining power of two, as O, are called dyads; 
those of three, as N, triads ; those of four, as C. tetrads. 
4_ Q. Explain difference between atomic and molecular formulae, with examples. 

A. Atomic is the number of atoms in an element; this collection is written 
at the right and a little below as H 2 , being 2 atoms of H. Molecular is the 
number of molecules in an element or compound, and is written just in front, 
as 4 H, O, being 4 molecules of H 2 0. 



Q. Describe the leading properties of Oxygen. 

A. An inodorless, tasteless gas, only sparingly soluble in H a 0, has great 
affinity for nearly all other elements, and combines directly with nearly all 
substances ; it does not combine with llourine ; the union of substances with O 
forms oxides. 

Q. What is the action produced by animals and by plants on the air. 

A. Animals breath in and give off C 2 to the air. Plants gire off O and 
take in C 0*, so the supply of O is kept up. 

Q. What is the composition of Atmosphere. 

A. Oxygen 20.60; Nitrogen 77.95; Carbon dioxide .04; Moisture 1.40; 
Nitric acid and Ammonia, traces. The oxygen supports animal life ; nitrogen 
dilutes the oxygen. 

Q. Why is it necessary that the oxygen should be diluted. 

A. To prevent too rapid vital or life functions which would soon exhaust 
and destroy animals. 

Q. How does Ozone differ from Oxygen. 

A. Ozone is allotropic form of oxygen, made when non-luminous electric 
discharges pass through air or oxygen ; when phosphorous partially covered 
with H s O is exposed to air ; also during a number of chemical decompositions. 
It differs from ordinary oxygen in having a peculiar odor, like wet-matches, 
by being a stronger oxidizing agent ; liberates iodine from potassii iodide ; 
ozone contains three atoms to the molecule; oxygen but two ; the three mole- 
cules of oxygen are reduced to two when it is changed into ozone, 3 2 oxygen 
= 2 3 ozone. 

Q. What are Barometers. 

A. Instruments to measure pressure of atmosphere. 


Q. What is the degree of atmospheric pressure in a glass tube containing 
fifteen lbs. of mercury,, one inch square at base. 

A. Fifteen lbs. to the square inch. 

Q. What is the principle of the barometer. 

A. A glass tube three feet long, closed at one end, is filled partly full of 
mercury, and inserted in a vessel of mercury, and the mercury column is 
maintained by the pressure of the atmosphere upon surface of mercury. 

Q. What are the properties of Hydrogen. 

A. Colorless, inodorless, tasteless gas, lightest of all known substances, 
having specific gravity of 0.0692 as compared with atmospheric air, burns 
readily in air, or in pure oxygen, with a non-luminous, colorless or slightly 
bluish flame. 

Q. What is formed when hydrogen is burned air. 

A. Water, as it takes one atom of oxygen from the atmosphere. 


Q. Describe briefly the Metric System. 

A. It combines weight, capacity, and distance. The metre is the unit of 
length and starting place for whole system. It is one-tenth — within distance 
of equator to the pole ; it is 39.1 inches long. This is a decimal system. 
Less than the metre, the Latin prefixes are used ; above the metre, Greek 

1-10 metre = 1 decimetre. 10 metres = 1 decometre. 

1.100 " =1 centimetre. 100 " =1 hectometre. 

1-1000 " =1 millimetre. 1000 " =1 kilometre. 

This applies to distance only. A cube 1 decimetre is unit of capacity and 
is called Litre ; it is about one quart. 

Latin prefixes below the litre, Greek above. 

1-10 litre = 1 decilitre. 10 litres = 1 decolitre. 

1-100 " ~1 centilitre. 100 " =1 heclolitre. 

1.1000 " =lmillitre. 1000 " = 1 kilolitre. 

One cube one centimetre of distilled water at its greatest density 4° centi- 
grade, is the unit of weight, and called a gramme. 

Below the gramme Latin, and above Greek prefixes. 

1-10 gramme = 1 decigramme. 10 grammes = 1 decogramme. 

1.100 " =1 centigramme. 100 " =1 hectogramme. 

1-000 " =1 milligramme. 1000 " =1 killogramme. 

The gramme weighs about fifteen and one-half grains. 

Q. How is a Thermometer graduated. 

A. The bulb end is heated, so that a portion of air is expanded and forced 
out, and then placed in a jar of mercury ; the air cooling will contract, and a 
portion of mercury is drawn in ; the bulb is again heated, when vapor of mer- 
cury will fill tube and force out nearly all the air ; the bulb being shaken a 
drop of mercury will fall into tube, and another heating will fill both tube and 
bulb with vapor of mercury, and while hot the open end of tube is sealed up, 
leaving a vacuum. To graduate, it is placed in melting ice, and the point at 
which mercury stands is marked; this gives freezing point; it is then placed 
in escaping steam, and mercury point marked, which gives boiling point; 
having these two points the scale is made between them by marking at equal 
distances points called degrees. 


Q. Describe the three thermometrie scales in use. 

A. Fahrenheit, Centigrade, and Reaumur's. Fahrenheit Zero is obtained from 
intense cold of ice and salt mixture, freezing point falling 32°, boiling point 
212°. Centigrade has freezing point for zero, boiling point falls at 100°. 
Reaumur's freezing point at zero and boiling point at 80°. 

Q. What are the laws of gaseous diffusion. 

A. The volume of a gas is inversely as the pressure; density and elastic 
force directly as the pressure, and inversely as the volume; a gas is a vacuum 
for every other gas ; the gaseous state is the one which differs the most ; all 
gases expand or contract when temperature is raised or lowered an equal 
number of degrees. 


Q. What is meant by latent heat of water. 

A. Heat not indicated by thermometer; latent heat is necessary to convert 
solids into liquids, and liquids into gases, and is not indicated by ther- 

Q. Describe changes in bulk which water undergoes when heated from C° 
to 100°. 

A. Water is at its greatest density at 3S° F. 4° C. above and below that 
it expands. ->■ 

Q. When does water boil. 

A. At 212° F ; 100° C ; 80° Reaumur. 

Q. How is pure water obtained. 

A. Pure H a O is obtained by distillation which is conversion of water into 
gas, and it then boils into a liquid. Rain water is the purest natural water, and 
the purest form of it is that collected after a rain of several days duration. 

Q. What is composition and chief properties of hydrogen dioxide or peroxide. 

A. Thick, colorless, oily liquid, odor like diluted CI. and metallic, astrin- 
gent taste. It is compound of two atoms of H to two atoms of O Hj O a . 


Q. Describe the preparation of Nitrogen Gas. 

A. By burning phosphorous in a closed space over water ; by passing air 
over red hot copper, oxygen of air unites with the copper forming oxides of 
copper, nitrogen being set free ; by passing chlorine gas through ammonia. 

Q. What are the properties of Nitrogen. 

A. A colorless, tasteless, inodorless gas, not iniiammable, will not support 
life or light, but is harmless and inert, lighter than air, a little lighter than 
oxygen; intense cold and great pressure will reduce it to a clear, colorless 

Q. Give composition of five oxides of nitrogen. 

A. N a O. Nitrous oxide ; N-> 3 , or N. 0. nitric oxide ; N 3 O s , nitrogen 
tetroxide ; N a O s , nitrogen pentoxide. 

Q. What is chemical combination in multiple proportions. 

A. If two elements A. and B. are capable of uniting in several proportions, 
the quantities of B, while combining a fixed quantity of Bi., bear simple 
ratio to each other. 

Q. Write out in symbols, decomposition occuring in preparation of nitric 
acid., and meaning of the symbols. 

A. The salt Nitrite of Sodium is acted on by sulphuric acid, one or two 


atoms of the nitrite can be used, as Na N 0, + H a S O t = H N 3 + Na H 4 ; 
or 2 Na N 3 + H a S 4 = 2 H N 0, + Na 2 S 4 . The first gives one molecule 
HN 3 and Sodium Bisulphate, the latter two molecules of HN0 3 and sul- 
phate of sodium Na a S 4 . 

Q. Give tests for Nitric acid. 

A. When heated- with copper filings and sulphuric acid, evolves red fumes 
of nitro<?en tetroxide ; a solution of indigo is decolorized by nitric acid. 

Q. Name chief properties of Nitrous Oxide gas. 

A. Colorless, little odor, sweet taste, supports combustion almost as well as 
oxygen ; inhaled, it causes exhileration, intoxication, anaesthesia ; used in 
dentistry as an anaesthetic. 

Q. What is relation between nitrogen pentoxide and nitrates trioxide and 

A. The first contains N 3 5 , two atoms of N. to five of ; the trioxide con- 
tains two atoms*of N to three of 0. N 2 3 ; the tetroxide N 2 4 , two atoms of 
N. to four of O ; nitrogen dioxide N 3 O a or N. O. contains equal volumes of 
N. and ; nitrogen minoxide, or nitrous oxide, N 3 O. contains two atoms of N 
to one of 0. 

Q. How is Nitrous Dioxide (nitric oxide) prepared. 

A. By extracting nitrogen from same substances as nitric acid which con- 
tains it. 3 Cu + 8 H N 3 = Cu (N 3 + 4 H 3 + 2 N 0. 

Q. What is the difference between nitrous oxide and nitric oxide. 

A. Nitrous oxide contains one atom less of oxygen, N 3 3 — Nitric oxide ; 
N 3 — Nitrous oxide. 

Q. By what two methods can ammonia be prepared. 

A. First, by passing an electric discharge for many hours through mixture 
of one volume of nitrogen to three of hydrogen (difficult). Second, by treat- 
ing ammonia from gas works (a sulphide); with calcium hydroxide. 

Q. What are the properties of ammoniacal gas. 

A. Colorless, very pungent odor, alkaline taste, strong alkaline reaction; 
burns in pure oxygen forming water and free oxygen. 

Q. How may ammonia be frozen. 

A. By mere application of seven atmospheres, or by intense cold can be 
converted into a liquid, which at 80° C. or 112° F. forms a solid crystalline 

Q. How is Liquid Nitrous Oxide prepared. 

A. By treating the gas under a pressure of fifty atmospheres, when it is 
converted into a colorless liquid. 


Q. Name the three distinct forms in which carbon exists. 

A. Diamond, graphite, and amorphous, as coal, lamp-black, bone-black and 

Q. State their peculiarities. 

A. Diamond is purest form of carbon, very hard and very valuable; graphite 
is a somewhat rare, dark-gray mineral ; amorphous is of soft, black con- 

Q. Carbon combining with oxygen, hydrogen, and nitrogen, forms com- 
pounds which form a separate branch of chemistry. 

A. Carbon combining with 0. N. and H. forms hydro-carbons, which form 
Organic Chemistry. 


Q. Describe nature of diamond. 

A. Crystallizes in regular octahedrons, cubes , or in some figure intimately 
connected with these ; hardest known substance ; infusible, but burns when 
heated intensely, forming C O a . 
' Q. Describe nature of graphite. 

A. Graphite, plumbago, or black-lead, is carbon crystallized in short six 
sided prisms, somewhat rare, of a dark -gray color, used principally for lend 
pencils, solder supports, etc. 

Q. What changes occur in passage of wood into charcoal. 

A. Charcoal is obtained by heating or burning wood out of contact with 
air ; it contains hydrogen and mineral substances of wood, and has lost carbon 
by burning. 

Q. Describe source and nature of coal. 

A. Formed from vegetable matter by a slow process of decay, mostly under 
water, in which hydrogen and oxygen are in great part removed, and the car- 
bon by pressure made compact, the decay being partly a fermentation and 
partly a decay, and chiefly slow destructive distillation; of hard, brittle con- 
sistence, black color ; it is an impure form of carbon. 

Q. How many compounds does carbon form with oxygen, and what are 

A. Two, carbon dioxide C0 2 , and carbon monoxide C. 0. 

Q. How may carbonic acid gas (carbon dioxide), be generated. 

A. By burning carbonate of lime Ca C 3 (lime-stone); Ca C 3 acted on by 
H CI will give carbon dioxide. 

Q. "What are its properties. 

A. C 3 is a colorless, odorless gas, with faintly acid taste ; is not a poison in 
itself, but will cause death by arresting respiration. 

Q. "What law regulates absorption of this gas in water. 

A. Cold water absorbs about its own volume, and under great pressure a 
a large amount is absorbed in the water. 

Q. How can carbonic acid be obtained in liquid and solid states. 

A. By pressure of thirty-eight atmospheres at temperature of 32° F. or 0° C. 
it is converted into a colorless liquid, which, by intense cold, becomes a solid, 
crystalline, snow like substance. 

Q. How is carbon monoxide, or carbonic oxide gas formed. 

A. When carbon is burned in an insufficient supply of oxygen; by passing 
C 2 over red hot carbon one atom of oxygen will be removed, C0 2 + l'=2 
C ; or carbonate of calcium Ca C 3 , heated with some form of C. Ca Co 3 -j- 
C = Ca + 2 C 0. 

Q. In what forms are compounds of carbon with hydrogen known. 

A. Hydrocarbons, very numerous. 

Q. What are Marsh pas (methane C H 4 ), and Fire-damp, Ethene C 2 H 4 . 

A. Hydrocarbons. 

Q. How is Acetylene formed. 

A. When electric sparks pass between electrodes of carbon in an atmosphere 
of hydrogen, 

Q. Ho\v is Ethene (heavy carburetted hydrogen, or defiant gas) formed. 

A. By destructive distillation of organic substances. 

Q. What are its properties. 

A. A colorless, almost odorless gas. 


Q. Describe the structure of a Flame. 

A. Consists of three parts or cones the inner or central is unburnt gas ; the 
second, partially burnt and burning gas ; the outer cone, showing highest 
temperature, but scarcely any light, is where complete combustion takes place. 

Q. Describe principle of a Bunsen Burner 

A. One in which enough air is admitted to flame to produce complete com- 
bustion ; no light, but intense heat is produced. 

Q. What is Cyanogen Compound. 

A. Does not occur itself in nature, but compounds of it are found when or- 
ganic matter containing nitrogen are heated with an alkali, especially in pres- 
ence of iron. 

Q. What is most important compound formed by cyanogen with hydrogen. 

A. Hydrocyanic acid. 

Q. How is cyanogen gas formed. 

A. By heating cyanide of mercury Hg (Cn) 2 = Hg + Cn. 

Q. What are its properties. 

A. A colorless, transparent gas, with peculiar odor, very soluble in H, O., 
heavier than air, can be collected by displacement, acts as chlorine. 


Q. How is Chlorine prepared. 

A. By acting on sodium chloride with sulphuric acid, and treating the 
hydrochloric acid formed with manganese. 

Q. What are the properties of chlorine. 

A. A greenish-yellow gas, very disagreeable odor irritating to fauces, two 
and one-half times heavier than air ; under pressure of 45.50 lbs. to square 
inch, and cooled by salt and ice mixture, it can be reduced to a greenish- 
yellow liquid. 

Q. Combining with hydrogen, chlorine forms what acid. 

A. Hydrochloric, H CI. 

Q. Upon what does the bleaching power of chlorine depend. 

A. The presence of moisture ; the chlorine liberates the oxygen from the 
moisture, and it is the liberated oxygen that bleaches. 

Q. Does dry chlorine gas bleach. 

A. No. 

Q. What is composition of bleaching powder. 

A. For convenience chlorine is passed through slaked lime ; called chloride 
of lime or calcium hypochlorite Ca (CI 0) 2 . 

Q. Give formulae of oxides of chlorine and corresponding acids. 

A. Hypochlorous oxide, Cl 2 0+ H 2 =- 2 H CI 0. 

Chlorous oxicle, Cl 2 3 + H 2 O = 2 H CI 2 . 

Chlorous tetroxide, Cl 2 4 , does not contain water to form an acid. 

Chloric oxide, Cl 2 O s + H 2 = 2 H CI 3 . Not known in separate state but 
combined with water. 

Per chloric oxide, Cl 2 0, + H 2 O = 2 H CI 4 . 

H CI., Hydrochloric acid. 

H CI 0., Hypochlorous acid. 

H CI 2 ., Chlorous acid. 

H CI 3 ., Chloric acid. 

H CI 4 ., Perchloric acid. 


Q. Give preparation of Nitro-Hydrocliloric acid (Aqua Regia). 

A. Obtained b.y mixing four pints nitric with fifteen pints hydrochloric acid ; 
the two act chemically on each other. 

Q. What are the properties of Aqua Regia. 

A. Noted for its dissolving power on gold and platinum, which depends on 
action of free chlorine, and chlorinous gas, which parts easily with its chlorine. 

Q. How do chlorine and oxygen unite. 

A. Not directly but may be made to unite indirectly. 


Q. How is Bromine obtained. 

A. Found in sea water as magnesium bromide, which yields bromine when 
treated with chlorine, Mg Br 3 + CI = Mg Cl 2 + 2 Br. 

Q. What are its properties. 

A. At common temperature, a dark reddish-brown liquid giving off brown 
fumes of exceedingly suffocating and irritating odor ; very volatile, and 
sparingly soluble in H 2 ; strong disinfectant, and its aqueous solution is a 
bleaching agent. 

Q. What is composition of Bromine and Hydrobromic acids. 

A. Bromic acid — H Br 3 ; Hydrobromic — H Br. 

Q. What are the oxides and oxy-acids of bromine analogous to. 

A. To those of chlorine. 

Q. What are the acids of Bromine. 

A. Hydrobromic, H Br., Hypobromic, H Br O., and Bromic acid; H 
Br0 3 . 

Q. How is Iodine obtained. 

A. In nature in combination with sodium and potassium, in some spring 
waters, and from sea water ; chiefly derived from vitrified ashes of sea weed, 
known as kelp ; washing, evaporating, and crystallizing and treating with 
manganese dioxide, and hydrochloric or sulphuric acid. 

Q. What are its properties. 

A. Heavy, bluish-black, crystalline substance, sharp, and acrid metallic 
taste and lustre, neutral reaction, sparingly soluble in water, stains skin 
brown, and internally is an irritant poison. 

Q. Give equation of the decomposition occuring in its manufacture from 
potassium iodide. 

A. Ki + CI = K CI + I. This occurs when Chlorine acts in potassium 
iodide. Sulphuric acid may also be used with manganese dioxide. 2KI + 
Mn 3 + 2 H a S 4 = K 2 S 4 + Mn S0 4 '+ 2 H 2 + 2 I. 

Q. How is hydriodic acid gas obtained and what are its properties. 

A. By action of hydro-sulphuric acid used upon iodine in presence of water 
H 2 S + 2 I = 2 H I + S. Its salts are used in medicine ; a colorless gas, very 
soluble in water. 

Q. Give source of Fluorine. 

A. Found in nature as fluorspar, calcium fluoride, traces of it in many 
minerals, some waters, enamel of teeth and bones of mammals. 

Q. What are its properties. 

A. A colorless gas, highly irritating and suffocating odor, with affinities 
stronger than any other element, combines with every element except oxygen, 
has great affinity for vessels in which it is made. 


Q. What general relations do the four elements chlorine, bromine, iodine 
and fluorine exhibit among themselves. 

A. A natural growth of elements, known as haloids or halogens; all combine 
with hydrogen forming H F; H CI; H Br; and H I; combine directly with most 
metals forming fluorides, chlorides, bromides and iodides ; with exception of 
flluorine, they have a distinct color in gaseous state, a disagreeable odor, and 
disinfecting properties ; relative combining energy lessens as atomic weight 
increases; fluorine with lowest has greatest volume, and with highest atomic 
weight the smallest affinity for other elements. 

Q. How is Hydrofluoric acid obtained. 

A. By action of sulphuric acid on fluorspar ; used in gaseous state or in 
solution in water, in etching glass. 

Q. How is Sulphur obtained. 

A. Found in uncombined state in volcanic districts ; in combination with 
other elements in form of sulphates (gypsum Ca S 4 ; 2 H a 0), and frequently 
as sulphides (in pyrites Fe S a ; galena Pb S ; cinnabar Hy S. etc). Sulphur 
also enters into organic compounds during decomposition of which sulphur is 
evolved as sulphurretted hydrogen, which gas is also a constituent of some 
waters; also crude sulphur. Sublimed sulphur (flower of sulphur) by heating 
sulphur to boiling point> and depositing vapor in form of a powder of small 
crystals ; washed sulphur, sulphur totum, is washed with very dilute ammonia 
water, and then with pure water, to free the sulphur from all sulphuric and 
sulphurous acids ; precipitated sulphur (milk of sulphur) made by boiling 
hydrate of calcium with sulphur and water, filtering, and adding hydrochloric 
acid, washing and drying the precipitated sulphur. 

Q. Give names and symbols of compounds of sulphur, oxygen and hydrogen. 

A. Sulphurous acid H a S 3 , and sulphuric acid H a S 4 . 

Q. How is sulphur dioxide prepared. 

A. By action of strong sulphuric acid on many metals (Cu. Hg. Ag. etc.,) 
2 H a S 4 + Cu = Cu S 4 + 2 H a O + S O a , always formed when sulphur is 
burned in air. 

Q. What are its properties. 

A. Colorless gas, suffocating, disagreeable odor, very soluble in water, form- 
ing sulphurous acid ; a strong deoxodizing, bleaching, and disinfecting agent; 
poisonous when inhaled in a pure state; diluted with air irritates air passages 
and causes coughing. 

Q. Sulphurous acid is the hydrogen salt of what compounds. 

A. Sulphates. 

Q. How does bleaching action of sulphurous acid differ from that of chlorine. 

A. Chlorine bleaches only in presence of moisture and destroys colors en- 
tirely; sulphurous acid bleaches of itself, but colors return by adding weak 
solution of ammonia. 

Q. In what respect are sulphurous and carbonic acids similar. 

A. Both extinguish flame of candle. 

Q. How may true sulphurous acid be formed from sulphur dioxide. 

A. By treating it with water, as in H a O + S O a = H a S O a . 

Q. What are, salts called sulphites, 

A. Those formed by action of sulphurous acid on substances. 

Q. How is sulphuric acid prepared. 

A. By passing into large chambers simultaneously vapors of sulphur dioxide, 


nitric acid and steam, with atmospheric air ; oxygen of nitric acid oxidizes the 
sulphur dioxide, which at same time takes up water SO, + 0+ HiO=H, S 
4 ; as formed by action of nitric acid on sulphurous acid, 3 H 3 S O s + 2 H N 
9 = 3 H 3 S 4 + H 3 O + 2 N 0. 

Q. What are the properties of Sulphuric acid. 

A. Colorless, oily liquid, tending to combine with H 3 0, absorbing it rapidly 
from atmosphere ; when H 3 is mixed with H 3 S 4 , heat is generated ; acts 
energetically on organic matter removing the H and 0. combining them into 
H a O, with which it unites, leaving both so rich in carbon that the black color 
predominates ; so strong an acid as to displace most other acids. 

Q. How may presence of sulphuric acid be detected. 

A. By its changing and blackening again organic substances; sodium sul- 
phate may be used Na 3 S 4 ; barium chloride produces a white precipitate of 
barium sulphate, insoluble in acids, JSTaj S0 4 + Ba Cl 3 = Ba SO, + 2 Na CI. 

Q. How may Thiosulphuric acid be obtained. 

A. Not known in separate state, as it decomposes into sulphuric and sul- 
phurous acids when attempts are made to liberate it from its salts, some of 
which are used, as sodium thiosulphate No 3 S 3 3 . This is the sodium hypo- 
sulphite of the W. S. P. 

Q. How is Hyposulphurous acid formed. 

A. H 3 S 3 by action of sulphurous acid on zinc, H, S O s T 3 n = Jn0 + 

Ha S 3 . 

Q. What are the principal compounds of sulphur, hydrogen, and oxygen. 

A. Hyposulphurous acid, H 3 S 3 ; fuming sulphuric acid H 3 S 3 3 ; dithonic 
acid, H 3 S 3 6 ; tuthenic acid, H 3 S a 6 ; tetrathenic acid, H 3 S 4 O e ; pentathi- 
anic acid H 3 S 5 O s . 

Q. How is Sulphuretted hydrogen formed. 

A. By action of sulphuric acid on ferrous sulphide Fe S. Fe S + H 3 S 4 = 
Fe S 4 + H 3 S ; it is liberated by decomposition of organic matter (putrefac- 
tion), and as a constituent of some spring waters ; also formed by destructive 
distillation of organic matter containing sulphur. 

Q. What are its properties. 

A. A colorless gas, very offensive odor, disgusting taste, very soluble in 
water, highly combustible in air, burning with a blue flame, poisonous when 

Q. How may this gas be used for separation of metals into groups. 

A. Dissolved in water, used as a reagent for precipitating and recognizing 
metals, a use which depends on the property of the sulphur to combine with 
many metals to form insoluble compounds. Cu S 4 + H 3 S = Cu + H 3 
S0 4 . 

Q. Where is Selenium obtained. 

A. Found native, also in combination, forming selenides ; raie ; has several 
allotropic forms; its power of conducting electricity is affected by light ; 
resembles sulphur in its properties. 

Q. Where is Tellurium found. 

A. Native, and also in union with bismuth, gold, etc., rare ; has a metallic 
lustre, purplish color, fuses below red-heat, and boils at a somewhat higher 
temperature ; resembles sulphur in its properties. 

Q. Where is Silicon found. » 

A. In nature, very abundant as silicon dioxide or silicon, Si 3 (rock crystal, 



quartz, agate, sand), and in form of silicates, which are granite, porphyry, 
basalt, fieldspar, mica, etc.), or a mixture of them; very much resembles 
carbon; insoluble, infusible in all common solvents. 

Q. Where is Boron found. 

A. In but few places, either as boric or boracic acid, or borate of sodium 
(borax); in nature combined with sodium, and oxygen as borax, N 2 B 4 T 
+ 10 H a O. 

Q. How is crystallized boron prepared, and what are its properties. 

A. By action of aluminum ; in boric anhydride B a 3 , if pure in brilliant 
crystals closely resembling the diamond, and next to it in hardness. 

Q. Where does boric or boracic acid occur, and how obtained from borax. 

A. H 3 B 3 exists in steam jets discharged in some volcanic regions, and 
some of its salts occur as minerals ; prepared by dissolving borax in warm 
dilute sulphuric acid and allowing solution to cool. 

Q. With what is phosphorous found in combination. 

A. Chiefly in nature in form of phosphates of calcium, iron, and aluminum; 
in small quantities in all soils on which plants will grow. 

Q. How is it prepared from bone ash. 

A. Bones deprived of animal matter, the bone ash is treated with sulphuric 
acid, the liquid concentrated, mixed with charcoal and sand, and heated ; cal- 
cium is then formed, the charcoal takes the oxygen and the phosphorous dis- 
tils over. Ca 3 (P 4 ) + 2 H 2 S 4 = 2 Ca S 4 + Ca H 4 (P 4 ) 2 . calcium acid 
phosphate, Ca H 4 (P 4 ) 2 + Si 2 + C 5 = Ca Si 3 + 2 H, O + 5 C P 2 . 

Q. What are the properties of Phosphorous. 

A. When recent, a colorless, nearly transparent solid, soft as wax ; exposed 
to light, it becomes brownish, opaque, and harder, takes fire easily, usually 
kept under water, burns with bright flame, causing white clouds of phosphoric 
anhydride; extremely poisonous, less than % grain has caused death; used as 
a medicinal substance, and on matches. 

Q. Whence do animals ultimately get the phosphorous they need. 

A. It is an essential constituent of all plants, and through the plants it is 
taken in as food. 

Q. Give the different modifications of phosphorous. 

A. Several allotrophic forms, of which the red is the most important, it 
is obtained by exposing phosphorous in an atmosphere of carbon dioxide ; it is 
not poisonous, nor luminous, not combustible under 28° F. over this it is con- 
verted into common phosphorous 

Q. How is phosphoric acid prepared. 

A. Phosphoric acid is capable of combining chemically with 1, 2, or 3 mole- 
cules of water forming 3 different acids : — 

P 2 5 + H 3 = H„ P,O f =2HP 8 , Metaphosphoric acid. 

P 2 0, + 2 II, O = H, P a 0„ Pyrophosphoric acid. 

l'» O s + 2 H» = H 6 P 2 8 = 2 H 3 P 4 , Chlorophosphoric acid. 

Phosphoric acid may be made by burning phosphorous, dissolving the 
phosphoric oxide in water, and boiling to convert metal into orthophosphoric 

Q. Give formula of tribasic sodium phosphates. 

A. Na 3 P 4 . 

Q. What two chlorides of phosphorous are known. 

A. P Cl 3 , and P Cl 5 , used in researches in organic chemistry. 


Q. What is hypophosphorous acid. 

A. Prepared by adding sulphuric acid to barium hypophosphite. 

Q. Name the oxides of phosphorous. 

A. Phosphorous anhydride P 2 3 , and phosphoric anhydride P, 5 ; the 
first is produced by slow oxidation of phosphorous in air, water is absorbed 
and phosphorous acid is formed, the second is produced by active combustion 
of phosphorous ; it is a white snow-like solid, with high affinity for water, and 
forms three different bodies by uniting with water in three proportions. 


Q. Where is Arsenic obtained. 

A. At times in native state, but generally as a sulphide or arsenide. 

Q. What does it closely resemble in its chemical properties, and in its 

A. Antimony. 

Q. How is arsenic separated from its ores. 

A. By washing, As 3 3 being formed, vapors of arsenic oxide allowed to pass 
over red hot charcoal, As a O s + 3C-3CO-|-2 As. 

Q. What are the properties of arsenic. 

A. The vapor when thus prepared, condenses into a steel-gray metallic mass; 
odorless, tasteless, very brittle, volatilizes unchanged and without melting 
when heated to 1800 C. without access to air ; heated in air it burns with a 
bluish-white light, forming arsenious oxide. 

Q. What are the peculiar characteristics of arsenites and arsenates. 

A. Poisonous and give off garlic-odor fumes. 

Q. What are the tests for presence of arsenic. 

A. Heat and dry arsenious compound, mix with charcoal and dry potassium 
carbonate in glass tube with small bulb on end, when the compound is decom- 
posed and metallic arsenic deposited as a metallic ring in upper part of tube. 
Reinch's Test: — A thin piece of copper with a bright surface, is placed in a 
slightly acidulated solution of arsenic, and it will, when solution is heated, 
become coated with film of metallic arsenic; the latter may be sublimed from 
the copper by placing it in a dry narrow test tube, and heating; most of 
the arsenic being converted into arsenious oxide, which forms deposit of 
small octohedral crystals. 

Q. How does ferric oxide act as an antidote in arsenical poisoning. 

A. By forming with the arsenic insoluble ferric arsenite or arseniate, which 
is not poisonous. 

Q. What is the preparation and composition of arseniuretted hydrogen. 

A. Always formed when either arsenious or arsenic oxides or acids, or any 
of its salts, are brought in contact with nascent hydrogen ; as zinc and diluted 
sulphuric acid which evolves hydrogen. 

As 3 CI, + 6 H = AsH, +3H CI. 

As 3 5 + 16 H = 2 As H 3 + 5 H„ 0. 

As a 3 + 12 H — 2 As H 3 + 3 H a 3 

Q. Describe modes in which metals generally occur. 

A. In form of ores, from which they are obtained by roasting. 

Q. What are metallic oxides. 

A. Substances formed by action of oxygen on metals. 

Q. What are metallic salts. 

A. Substances formed by action of acids on metals. 



Q. How is potassium prepared. 

A. By heating the carbonate K 3 C 3 with charcoal. 

Q. What are its properties. 

A. Occurs in many rocks and soils; a quite soft metal, freshly cut surface 
presents a silver lustre, but quickly tarnishes in air ; burns with a purple 
flame, and decomposes water. 

Q. Give sources of potassium compounds. 

A. Silicate of potassium by gradual disintegration of granite rocks, has 
entered into the soil, whence it is taken up by plants as one of the necessary 
constiuents of their food ; which is the source of the Potassium compounds. 

Q. How is Caustic Potash obtained. 

A. By action of potassium on water ; also by boiling dilute solution of 
potassium carbonate, or bicarbonate and calcium hydroxide. K 2 C 3 H Ca 2 
HO = CaCO, + 2 KOH. 

Q. How is potassium carbonate prepared. 

A. By heating the bicarbonate which is decomposed 2 K H C 3 = K 2 C0 3 + 
H 3 + C 2 . 

Q. What are its properties. 

A. Very deliquescent, soluble in equal weight of water, with strong basic 
and alkaline properties. 

Q. How is potassium nitrate prepared. 

A. By mixing animal refuse matter with earth and lime, and preventing 
lixiviation by placing in heaps; by decomposition of the animal matter, ammo- 
nia is formed, which, by oxidation, is converted into nitric acid, this combin- 
ing with the calcium, forms calcium nitrate ; this is dissolved by water, and 
potassium carbonate, or chloride, is added when potassium nitrate is obtained. 
Ca 2 N 3 + K„ G 3 = 2 K N 3 + Ca C 3 . 

Q. What are its properties. 

A. Saline, astringent taste, and neutral reaction ; great oxidizing agent, 
used in making gunpowder. 

Q. What is gunpowder. 

A. Mixture of 75 parts of nitre, 15 parts of charcoal, and 10 parts of sulphur. 

Q. What occurs when it explodes. 

A. The nitrogen, carbon dioxide and carbon monoxide occupy at moment of 
explosion, about 1200 times the bulk of the powder, and the explosive action is 
due to this sudden expansion in volume. 


Q. What are the sources of sodium compounds. 

A. Found in small quantities in all soils ; occurs in large quantities in com- 
bination with chlorine as rock salt ; to a large extent in the ocean. 
Q. What is the salt-cake process. 
A. That by which sodium carbonate is made. 


Q. What is the source of Lithium. 

A. In nature in combination with silicic acid in a few rare minerals, or as a 
chloride in some spring waters ; these compounds color flame a beautiful crim- 
son or carmine. 


Q. What are the compounds of lithium. 
A. Hydroxide, carbonate, and phosphate. 


Q. How is Ammonium chloride obtained. 

A. By saturating ammonical liquor of the gas works with hydrochloric acid, 
evaporating to dryness and purifying by sublimation ; in form of white 
crystalline powder, or long fibrous crystals ; cooling saline taste. 


Q. How is Lime obtained. 

A. By burning lime-stone, calcium carbonate Cu 3 Ca C 3 = Ca O + C 2 . 

Q. What is Lime Water. 

A. A saturated solution of calcium hydroxide in water, colorless, odorless 
caustic taste, and alkaline reaction. 

Q. Give composition and properties of Glass 

A. All varieties are mixtures of fusible, insoluble silicates, made by fusing 
silicic acid (white sand) with different metallic oxides or carbonates, the silicic 
acid combining chemically with the metals. 

Q. How are colors imparted to glass. 

A. By addition of certain metallic oxides, as manganese — violet, cobalt — 
blue, chromium — green, etc. 

Q. What are the tests for presence of zinc, cadmium and manganese. 

A. For Zinc : add to solution of a zinc salt ammonium sulphide, a white pre- 
cipitate of zinc sulphide is produced. For Cadmium : it forms a yellow sul- 
phide with hydrosulphuric acid, soluble in dilute acids. For Manganese : 
such compounds fused with borax give a violet color to the color bead ; or 
heated on platinum foil with mixture of sodium carbonate and nitrate form a 
green solution in water, which an acid turns red. 


Q. How is Ferrous Sulphate obtained. 

A. Green vitriol, obtained by dissolving iron in sulphuric acid. 

Q. How can ferrous and ferric salts be distinguished. 

A. In ferrous compounds iron is bivalent; in ferric it is trivalent. 

Q. What changes occur in making wrought iron. 

A. It is made from cast iron by "puddling," which burns out the carbon by 
oxidation; blowing air through molten iron. 

Q. What are chemical characteristics of Cadmium. 

A. Cadmium and compounds are of little interest, yellow sulphide is used as 
a pigment, and sulphate and iodide as medicine. 

Q. What of Manganese. 

A. Resembles iron in its physical and chemical properties , a grayish-white 
Metal, brittle and hard ; it forms two series of salts parallel to those of iron. 

Q. What of Cobalt. 

A. Nearly silver white metal, salts generally of a red color ; solution gives 
a blue color. 

Q. What of Nickel, N. 

A. Very similar to cobalt, nearly silver-white metal, salts give a green color. 

Q. How can tin compounds be distinguished. 

A. Tin is bivalent in some compounds, quadrivalent in others. 


Q. Where is Titanium, Ti, found. 

A. Exists as titanic anhydride, Ti 2 , also in iron ores. 

Q. What of Chromium, Ch. 

A. A metal of very beautiful color in its compounds ; resembles aluminum 
and iron, also sulphur ; forms two basic oxides and an acid. 

Q. What of Molybdenum, Mo . 

A. Occurs chiefly as a sulphide, and as lead molybdate, both rare. 

Q. What of Tungsten, W. 

A. Rare metal, exists as a manganese-iron tungstate, called wolfram and 
tungstate (seheelite). 

Q. What of Uranium, U. 

A. Rare metal, grayish, not oxidized by air or water, but dissolves in acids- 

Q. What of Vandium, V. 

A. Rare metal, found with iron and lead ; has been used to make indellible 

Q. What of Thalium, TI 

A. Acts as a monad and triad, resembles lead, but compounds are like po- 
tassium and somewhat like those of silver. 

Q. How can compounds of tin be distinguished. 

A. By adding muriatic acid to solution of stannous salt, when brown stan- 
nous sulphate is precipitated ; also by adding hydrosulphuric acid to solution 
of a stannic salt, when yellow stannic sulphide is precipitated. 

Q. Give formulae for potassium chromates. 

A. Potassii dichromas K 2 Cr 2 7 . Potassium chromate K 2 Cr { . 

Q. Of oxides of arsenic and antimony. 

A. Arsenious oxide — acicum arseniosum, As 2 3 . 

Antimonious oxide — antimonii oxidum Sb 2 3 . 

Antimonic oxide, Sb 2 5 . 

Arsenic oxide, As 2 5 . 

Q. What decomposition takes place in melting lead. 

A. 2 Pb S + 3 2 = 2 Pb O + 2 S 2 . 

Q. How is White Lead— carbonate of lead, 2 (Pb C0 3 ) Pb 2 H O, formed. 

A. By action of air carbon dioxide, and vapors of acetic acid simultaneously 
on lead. 

Q. In what do organic substances differ from inorganic. 

A. Organic are formed in the living organism, and those compounds formed 
by their decomposition. Inorganic, those that are not living, and never have 
been, nor never will be. 

Q. Give examples of an organized structure. 

A. The different cells which make up the human body ; cell of growing 
plants, etc. 

Q. Can organic substances be formed artificially. 

A. Many substances once thought to be exclusively produced in the living 
organism, can be formed artificially from inorganic matter, or by direct com- 
bination of the elements. 

Q. Can Hydrocyanic Acid be prepared from inorganic sources. 

A. Yes, and by action of ammonia on chloroform. 

C H Cl 3 + N. H 3 = H C N + 3 H CI ; by heating ammonia nitrate to 392° 
F— NH 4 CH0 2 = HCN + H CI. 

Q. What is the formula of Ethyl alcohol. 


A. C, H 6 HO. 

Q. Of Acetylene. 

A. C, H 2 . 

Q. Of Acetone. 

A. (CH 3 ) a CO. 

Q. Of Aldehyde. 

A. C 2 H 4 0. 

Q. Acetanilide or Antifebrin. 

A. C, H 5 C 2 H 3 O. N H. 

<£ Of Methyl alcohol. 

A. CH 3 HO. 

Q. "What is the source of Methyl Alcohol. 

A. One of the many products obtained by destructive distillation of wood, 
it is a thin, colorless liquid, in smell and taste similar to ethyl alcohol. 

Q. What is Ethyl Alcohol. 

A. Common alcohol may be obtained from ethene by addition of elements of 
water, by agitation of ethene with strong sulphuric acid, when ethyl sulphuric 
acid is formed. C 2 114-1-112 8 04=02 115 118 04= ethyl sulphuric acid. 


Q. What is General Pathology. 

A. That branch of medical science that treats of nature of diseases in 

Q. What is Special Pathology. 

A. That which treats of the nature of individual diseases. 

Q. Define Disease. 

A. A condition of body characterized by abnormal action of one or more of 
the various organs owing to an unnatural state or structural change. 

Q. Into what two varieties may disease be divided. 

A. Acute and Chronic. 

Q. What characterize Acute Diseases. 

A. Rapid onset and rapid course. 

Q. What Chronic Diseases. 

A. Slow in their course, and milder symptoms. 

Q. What Constitutional Diseases 

A. Where the system of organs, or the whole body is involved. 

Q. What Functional Diseases. 

A. Where there is abnormality of function without apparent organic lesion. 

Q. What Idiopathic Diseases. 

A. Where one exists by itself without any connection with another dis- 

Q. What Specific Diseases. 

A. Such as arise from the introduction of a specific virus or poison within 
the body. 

Q. What Septic Diseases. 

A. Those arising from putrefactive fermentation of some foreign substance 
within the bodj'. 

Q. What Zymotic Diseases. 


A. Germ diseases, or those due to introduction and multiplication of some 
living germ within the body. 

Q. Give the predisposing causes of disease. 

A. Debilitating influences, previous and present disease, excitement, heredi- 
tary influences, temperament, age, sex, occupation, etc. 

Q. Name the normal pulse beats per minute from birth to old age. 

A. At birth— 140; 1st year— 110; 2nd year— 100; 5th year— 90; 10th year— 
85; Puberty— 80; Adult— 75; Old age— 80. 

Q. What does Anaemia imply. 

A. Deficiency of red corpuscles in blood. 

Q. What does Hyperemia imply. 

A. An abundance of red corpuscles. 

Q. What does Spanaemia imply. 

A. A poor quality of blood. 

Q. What does Plethora imply. 

A. A fullness of blood-vessels. 

Q. What changes occur in the white and red corpuscles in inflammation. 

A. The white increase in number and adhere to walls of vessels and obstruct 
capillaries, and thus arrest progress of the red disks ; some make their way 
through walls of vessels, and are known as exudation corpuscles ; loosing 
vitality they become pus corpuscles. 

Q. What is Gangrene, 

A. Incipient mortification, or death of a part form failure in nutrition. 

Q. What is Mortification. 

A. Putrefactive fermentation, or death of a part from want of nutrition. 

Q. What is Necrosis. 

A. Mortification or death of bone, corresponding to gangrene of soft parts. 

Q. What is Caries. 

A. Ulceration of bone, chronic inflammation of bone. 

Q. What is Exfoliation. 

A. The separation of bone or other tissue from the living structure ; throw- 
ing off of dead bone. 

Q. What is Sequestrum, 

A. A detached or dead piece of bone within a cavity, abscess, or wound. 

Q. What is an Ulcer. 

A. An open wound that remains stagnant instead of healing. 

Q. What does ulceration imply. 

A. The process of formation of an ulcer. 

Q. What are the symptoms of Suppuration. 

A. The symptoms of inflammation, such as heat, pain, and vascular excite- 
ment, diminish ; the swelling becomes softened, there is fluctuation, and the 
redness changes to a yellowish or mottled color. 

Q. What is meant by the "pointing" of an abscess. 

A. The formation of a conical part, caused by tendency of pus to come to the 
surface, where softening and fluctuation occur. 

Q. What effects may arise from extensive Suppuration. 

A. A frequent, weak pulse, less fever, chills and sweats with flushes of heat 
debility, exhaustion, and even death. 

Q. What does the term "adynamic" or "adynamia," imply. 

A. Deficiency or loss of vital or muscular power. 

6 4 

Q. What is the Etiology of Dental Caries. 

A. A gradual softening and disintegration of the tooth structures, appear- 
ing first as a chalky, opaque spot in the enamel, and caused by an acid or 
otherwise abnormal condition of the secretions of mouth— the product of fer- 
mentation of particles of food, or from systemic conditions ; the progress 
assisted by micro-organisms. 

Q. What acids are most injurious to tooth structure. 

A. Nitric, sulphuric, hydrochloric and lactic. 

Q. What acids are most commonly found in the mouth. 

A. Hydrochloric and Lactic. 

Q. What form of dental caries is caused by nitric acid. 

A. White and extremely sensitive, the organic as well as the inorganic struc- 
tures being destroyed. 

Q. What form by Sulphuric Acid. 

A. Black, less sensitive and slow in progress. 

Q. What form by Hydrochloric Acid. 

A. Brown, the inorganic matter being destroyed, and the organic remain 

Q. What from Lactic Acid. 

A. A light form, less sensitive than that caused by nitric acid. 

Q. What surfaces of the teeth are most prone to caries. 

A. Proximal surfaces. 

Q. What Teeth are most prone to attacks of caries. 

A. First Molars, the inferior more than superior; then Second Molars, 
Second Bicuspids, Third Molars, First Bicuspids, Lateral Incisors, Central In- 
cisors, and Cuspids. 

Q. What effect has illness upon susceptibility to caries. 

A. When severe, the conditions influencing attacks of caries are, want of 
proper nutrition, acid secretions, and free fermentation on account of unclean- 

Q. What effect has sex on susceptibility to dental caries. 

A. Teeth of females more prone than those of males. 

Q. What is the Preventive Treatment of Caries. 

A. Cleanliness from period of eruption of deciduous teeth ; use of a proper 
tooth-brush daily after each meal, and the use of a proper dentifrice upon 
rising, and just before retiring, assisted by floss silk and a quill tooth-pick to 
cleanse proximal surfaces. 

Q. What mouth washes are often useful as an adjunct. 

A. Alkaline — such as lime water, borax, or bicarbonate of soda, to neutralize 
any acidity of oral fluid. 

Q. Give formula for a Dentifrice. 

A. B. Cretae preparatae, 3* viij ; Pulv. radicis iridis; 3 iv ; Pulv. ossis sepiae, 
,5J; Pulv. sacchari albi,"3J; Saponis castil, 5J; Sodae bicarb, 5-ss; Pulv. 
cinchonae fllava, 3* j ; cochineal, 3 j ; olei rosae, gtt. 20. Mix and reduce to an 
impalpable powder. 

Q. What is the source of Mucous Deposit on Teeth of Children. 

A. Brown or green stain — uot from same sources as salivary or sanguinary 
calculus, but a deposit from the mucous, when the latter is in a very acid 
condition, in the form of fungi. 

Q. How is it safely removed. 


A. By finely powdered pumice on wood points or small brushes rotated by 
dental engine, and the surface burnished or polished. 

(j. What is the effect of the Mucous Deposit. 

A. It erodes enamel and facilitates attacks of caries 

Q. What is the analysis of Salivary Calculus. 

A. Phosphate of Lime, 62.00; Carbonate of Lime, 12.00 ; Animal matter and 
mucus, 15.00 ; Water and loss 11.00 = 100.00. 

Q. Does Salivary Calculus injure tooth structure. 

A. Indirectly by exposing necks of teeth to deleterious agents ; its irritating 
effects are manifested on gums, causing recessiou, inflammation, and absorp- 
tion of alveolar process. 

Q. Where does salivary calculus collect in greatest quantities. 

A. On lingual surfaces of lower front teeth, and buccal surfaces of upper 
molars ; more on side least used in mastication. 

Q. How does it differ in color. 

A. From a light cream to a dark yellow, brown and black ; soft when first 
deposited, but soon becomes hard and brittle. 

Q. What is the nature of Sanguinary Calculus. 

A. In the form of irregular crystalline granules at different points on sur- 
face of root of tooth, even to apex, or encircling root just below free margin of 
gum ; harder and more firmly attached than salivary calculus. 

Q. What is Sanguinary Calculus chiefly composed of. 

A. Lime salts colored with haematin of blood, to which its crystalline form 
is due. 

Q. With what form of inflammation is it in connection. 

A. Suppurative process, at which stage the liquor sanguinis is transuded, 
degenerates during the formation of pus, and its lime salts are liberated and 
deposited within the area of suppuration ; it is a result of ulceration ; salivary 
calculus is a cause of ulceration. 

Q. What is Periodontitis or Pericementitis. 

A. Inflammation of the Peridental Membrane. 

Q. What is the nature of this membrane. 

A. Very vascular, very susceptible to irritation and inflammation, and 
highly sensitive when inflamed. 

Q. What may cause its inflammation. 

A. The death of the pulp, and the infiltration of septic matter through 
apical foramen ; also mechanical violence — as a blow or the biting of hard 

Q. Where does Periodontitis generally commence. 

A. In the Apical Space at end of root. 

Q. What is the condition of Peridental membrane in apical space. 

A. It is usually thicker than along root of tooth. 

Q. What accounts for the intense pain of Periodontitis. 

A. The membrane is confined in a bony cavity and being very profusely 
supplied with nerves and blood vessels, there is not space for the expansion of 
these when they are engorged and conjested. 

Q. What are the two forms of this affection. 

A. Acute and chronic. 

Q. Describe symptoms of Acute Periodontitis. 

A. First, uneasiness in tooth affected; a desire to press upon it; a feeling 


of fullness; relief as long as pressure is maintained; then pain of a dull 
heavy character, elongation of tooth, owing to the thickening of its investing 
membrane; pressure no longer relieves but is painful; the gums assume a 
deep red color, instead of the normal pale rose hue; and become congested 
and swollen. 

Q. How may Periodontitis be diagnosed. 

A. By pressure or slight blows on affected tooth. 

Q. How does Periodontitis differ from Pulpitis. 

A. In that it is not generally affected by thermal changes, and pressure on 
tooth crown apart from pulp will cause pain in periodontitis. 

Q. What distinguishes Chronic Periodontitis. 

A. It is a modified form of the Acute, and may be limited to soreness of the 
tooth only, and slight annoyance, or it may be attended with considerable 
congestion and sensitiveness when tooth is pressed upon, subsiding and 

Q. Name the causes of Periodontitis. 

A. Inflammation of pulp resulting in its death; salivary calculus; improper 
use of arsenious acid ; action of mercurial remedies, mechanical violence ; too 
close proximity of a metallic filling to pulp; loss of antagonizing teeth; over- 
hanging portions of metallic filling in proximal cavities ; constitutional causes 
such as malaria, syphilis, rheumatism, scrofula, etc. 

Q. What is the treatment of Periodontitis. 

A. Remove all irritating matter from pulp canals, apply counter-irritants to 
gum over root, such as tincture of aconite and iodine ; local bloodletting by 
lancet or leeches ; syringe pulp canals with warm water; disinfect pulp canals 
with ethereal solution of iodoform, or iodoform combined with oil of cassia or 
eugenol ; or use eucalyptus, carbolic acid and oil of cassia, oil of sanitas, etc. 
Cantkaridal collodion may also be used as a counter irritant ; saline cathar- 
tics to relieve congestion, morphia to relieve intense pain. 

Q. Why is an abscess connected with a tooth called Alveolar Abscess. 

A. Because the collection of pus is within the alveolar cavity in the form of 
a sac adhering to root of tooth. 

Q. Is the seat of an abscess invariably at the apex of the root of a tooth. 

A. No, besides being in apical space, it is sometimes at the side of the root, 
or, in the case of molars, in the bifurcation of roots. 

Q. Describe manner in which an Alveolar Abscess is formed. 

A. The Peridental membrane being the seat of the abscess, plastic lymph is 
effused, which is condensed i»to a sac, and the accumulation of pus within the 
sac causes it to distend, which exerts pressure on the bone surrounding it, 
bringing about absorption to accomodate the increasing quantity of pus, 
which finally makes its way to the surface, usually by a fistulous opening 
through bone and soft tissues. 

Q. Does Alveolar Abscess ever result in necrosis of bone. 

A. Yes ; when the pus burrows between the periosteum and bone and sepa- 
rates the two, the septic matter thus brought int j contact with the bone ca uses 

Q. What other results may occur. 

A. The pus may invade the duct of a salivary gland and cause salivary 
fistula; or cause inflammation of tonsils when the abscess affects an inferior 
third molar ; or, invading the muscles of cheek and neck, cause trismus. 


6 7 

Q. Describe progress of Acute Alveolar Abscess from its inception to full 

A. Begins in the apical space, usually by the infiltration of irritant or 
septic matter, through apical foramen of tooth, affecting peridental membrane, 
the poison existing in the form of gases or septic material generated by decom- 
position of pulp of tooth after its devitalization ; the first symptom is acute 
inflammation of the investing membrane about the apical foramen^beginning 
with a sense of uneasiness, pressure and slight pain, succeeded by elongation 
of tooth from thickening of inflamed peridental membrane, pain on pressure; 
the inflammatory condition manifesting itself in the gum over affected tooth ; 
violent throbbing pain, with increased redness, heat, tension, and swelling 
follow, lasting until the escape of the pus. 

Q. What are the constitutional symptoms. 

A. Fever, hot dry skin, coated tongue, prostration, constipation, and vio- 
lent pain in face and neck. 

Q. What symptoms characterize Chronic Alveolar Abscess. 

A. May result from long continuance of acute form, or commence with less 
active symptoms ; pain less severe, but more enervating, more diffused dis- 
coloration, more extended oedema, infiltration of pus into adjoining tissues, 
gradual subsidence of such symptoms upon the establishment of a fistulous 

Q. What effect has the pus of an abscess upon bone :.f alveolar cavity. 

A. The bone is absorbed for the enlargement of the abscess. 

Q. Name Points of escape of pus of an Abscess. 

A. Through alveolar wall, apical foramen, root canal, and crown cavity, 
along side of root to free edge of gum, through process into antrum or nose,^. 
and facially or cervically. 

Q. What teeth present unfavorable prognosis in abscess. 

A. Superior laterals, inferior bicuspids and third molars. 

Q. How may a fistulous opening be established. 

A. By closing canals or crown cavity, and hastening suppuration; by mak- 
ing an opening through tissues opposite sac of abscess, and by lancing soft 

Q. By what treatment may an alveolar abscess of a lower molar be prevent- 
ed openine on face or neck. 

A. By lancing freely to evacuate pus through gum ; by supporting exter- 
nally with bandage or compress to change direction of pus; by stimulating 
internally until an internal fistula is established ; by extracting tooth. 

Q. What is the result of an abscess discharging on face. 

A. An unsightly scar. 

Q. What is the Surgical Treatment of Alveolar Abscess. 

A. Make an incision in the gum externally to apex of root and walls of 
abscess cavity or sac ; into this opening introduce a bur attached to dental 
engine, cut through alveolar wall and break up sac, and also cut off end of 
root of tooth as smoothly as possible ; if there is any necrosed bone present 
remove it also ; then syringe cavity with peroxide of hydrogen, or this com- 
bined with bichloride of mercury; also aromatic sulphuric acid. 

Q. What is the Treatment of the Different Forms of Alveolar Abscess. 

A. For simple cases, consists in removal of septic matter from pulp-chamber 
and canals, and in acute cases to evacuate the pus through the tooth, as soon 


as possible, and allow parts to rest and recover from the soreness, then, the 
use of some disinfectant placed in pulp canal on a pledget of cotton, tight 
enough to exclude saliva ; the cavity may be opened from time to time for dis- 
charge of pus, if necessary; if pain returns open canal and treat as before. Where 
external lamina of bone has been penetrated by the pus, and a tumor is 
present, it should be opened and the pus discharged ; if in this ease the tooth 
is very sore, the opening of the pulp chamber may be delayed, and cotton 
saturated with a 95 per cent, solution of carbolic acid be introduced into the 
incision in gum to keep it open 5 after the extreme soreness has passed, the 
canals should be opened, all septic matter removed, and the canals thoroughly 
disinfected, and the opening in gum allowed to heal. Constitutional treat- 
ment is often necessary in severe cases, such as an active saline cathartic, 
followed by a stimulant tonic, such as ten to fifteen grains of quinine. 

Q. What is Phagedenic Pericementitis. 

A. A specific inflammation, infectious in character, which begins in the 
gingival borders and results in destruction of peridental membrane and alveo- 
lar walls ; of the fungoid type. 

Q. What is the treatment. 

A. With a curved bistoury cut into margin of gum within limit of healthy 
tissue, then through alveolar process and dissect up the tumefied line, scrape 
margins of cavity and cauterize several times with carbolic or chromic acid ; 
internally mild stimulants and tonics. 

Q. What does the tissue of the dental pulp consist of. 

A. Connective tissue group, supplied with many blood vessels and nerves. 

Q. What are the processes of the odontoblasts or dentine forming cells. 

A. Dentinal fibrillae. 

Q. What is in close connection with each odontoblast. 

A. A nerve branch. 

Q. How is the impression made on the protoplasm of the odontoblasts 
through injury of the fibrillae, communicated to the sensorium. 

A. By means of the fine nerve filaments found everywhere in the periphery 
of the pulp; and sensation follows lines of pathological changes. 

Q. Why has the dentine no need of nerves. 

A. Owing to the peculiar arrangement of the odontoblasts and their pro- 
cesses the dentinal fibrillae ; the cells being in physiological relation to the 
sensory nerve endings, the conditions for the translation of injury to pro- 
toplasm into the sensation of pain are complete. 

Q. Do such considerations account for hyperesthesia of dentine and injury 
to dental pulp by irritation of the fibrillae. 

A. Yes. 

Q. What is required to make up the sum of the sensory functions of a tooth. 

A. The pulp and peridental membrane. 

Q. What does the sense of touch wholly reside in. 

A. The Peridental Membrane, which receives the impression of even the 
slightest touch upon any part of surface of tooth. 

Q. From what does the dentine derive its sensory function. 

A. Directly from pulp through dentinal fibrillae, and the pulp responds to 
injury by a sense of pain, not of touch. 

Q. Does the dental pulp manifest decided sensibility to thermal changes. 

A. Yes, but it does not determine degrees of temperature, or distinguish 

6 9 

heat from cold ; and it must be aided by nerves of lips, gums, and peridental 
membrane to so discriminate. 

Q. Where does Sensitive Dentine generally manifest itself. 

A. On abraded masticating surfaces, and in carious cavities. 

Q From what causes. 

A. Exposure and injury or irritation of dentinal fibrillae. 

Q. What is the cause of pain when dentine is cut into. 

A. The fibrillaj are injured, and these communicating with the pulp, estab- 
lish the circuit of sensibility to the pulp and through it to the brain. 

Q. What provision is established by nature to preserve the dental pulp from 
exposure on gradual loss of covering. 

A. The formation of Secondary Dentine ; the pulp shrinking in size the 
space thus left is occupied by this secondary formation. 

Q. What are the safest obtunders of Sensitive Dentine. 

A. Those that confine their action to the superficial layer. 

Q. With what materials should very sensitive teeth be filled. 

A. With a reliable non-conducting material ; or if gold is used, with a pre- 
paratory layer of gutta-percha, asbestos, tin foil, etc. 

Q. In the treatment of sensitive dentine what simple measures are some- 
times of service. 

A. Use of very sharp burs and excavators, in a direction away from pulp; 
application of a burnisher to sensitive surface. 

Q. What agents are used as obtunders of Sensitive Dentine. 

A. Tannic acid, chloride of zinc, carbolic acid, chloroform, aconite, nitrate 
of silver, carvacrol, oil of cloves, eugenol, campho-phenique, oil of eucalyptus, 
cocaine, chloral, thymol, menthol, sesquichloride of chromium, carbonate of 
potash, ethylate of sodium, crystallized carbolic acid and caustic potash equal 
parts, dehydration by warm air, rhigolene spray, and dento-electric cautery. 

Q. What is the Dental Pulp. 

A. The soft tissue that occupies the central cavity of each tooth. 

Q. How is it divided. 

A. Into coronal portion or bulb, and canal or root portion. 

Q. What does the form of Dental Pulp correspond to. 

A. The general form of the tooth in which it is located. 

Q. What is the appearance of Dental Pulp when in a healthy condition. 

A. Of a grayish-white color. 

Q. What is its appearance when in a state of active inflammation. 

A. Of a bright red color, the capillaries being visible. 

Q. AVhat is the mass of pulp-tissue composed of. 

A. A semi-gelatinous matrix, thickly studded with cells a little apart from 
each other 

Q. What other tissues form parts of the dental pulp. 

A. Blood vessels and nerves. 

Q. What are the functions of the dental pulp. 

A. The formation of the dentine, and maintainance of vitality of the teeth. 

Q. Describe the arrangement of Blood vessels of Pulp. 

A. Very numerous before roots are formed, afterwards when apical foramen 
is completed, less numerous until they consist of two or three branches only, 
which divide into many capillaries and thus form a complete network of 
vessels within substance of pulp. 

7 o 

Q. What is the difference in size of the arteries and veins of Pulp. 
A. The veins are slightly larger than the arteries, and freely anastomose 
with each other. 

Q. In what manner do the nerves enter the pulp. 

A. Through apical foramen by a single bundle, and divide in the canal, and 
subdivide in the coronal portion, sending off filaments to the periphery. 
Q. Does the pulp show any decided sensibility to thermal changes. 
A. Yes ; there appears to be. a certain association in this respect between it 
and the peridental membrane. 
Q. What do these manifestations show. 

A. That it is necessary to protect an irritant pulp from thermal changes. 
Q. What is a test for diseased condition of pulp. 

A. When any pain in region of face or ear is decidedly increased by filling 
mouth with cold or warm water. 
Q. By what means can periodontitis and pulpitis be diagnosed. 
A. If periodontitis is present, the tooth is sensitive to touch, and not sensi- 
tive to moderate thermal changes ; in pulpitis the tooth is sensitive to touch, 
but very sensitive to changes of temperament ; in reflected pain from pulpitis 
the tooth is not sore to touch, while radiating pains are absent in periodontitis 
without pressure of a tooth that is sensitive to touch. 
Q. Do we have swelling of soft parts about tooth in pulpitis. 
A. No; such swelling is indicative of periodontitis, and alveolar abscess. 
Q. What does Hyperemia of Dental Pulp imply. 
A. That its bloodvessels are congested or too full of blood. 
Q. What renders pulp of a tooth susceptible to morbid impressions. 
A. Peculiarities of temperament, habit of body, condition of health, condi- 
tion of the tooth structures. 
Q. What does Hypersesthesia imply. 
A. An excessive state of irritability. 

Q. Does such a condition depend upon any organic change in the tissues of 
a tooth. 

A. It may exist independent of any organic change, either in the pulp, 
dentine, or enamel. 
Q. What is the most common cause of hypersesthesia of pulp. 
A. Caries, even before it has penetrated to the pulp. 
Q. What constitutional causes. 

A. Impaired digestion, and disordered bodily functions. 
Q. What local causes of irritability of pulp. 
A. Impressions of heat and cold, acids, etc. 
Q. What is the Treatment of Irritability of Pulp. 

A. Remove cause ; if from acids — the use of alkaline washes such as bicar- 
bonate of soda, lime water, etc., if from impressions of cold or heat through a 
metallic filling, such fillings should be removed and either replaced by non- 
conducting filling material, or the metallic filling renewed with a preparatory 
layer of gutta percha or other non-conductor, covering the sensitive surface. 
Q. When must such treatment be instituted. 
A. Before inflammation of pulp has commenced. 

Q. What is the treatment in cases of excessive sensibility of dentine owing 
to abrasion and which would result in irritation of pulp. 
A. The application of nitrate of silver; also capping. 


(J. Why is an inflamed pulp (pulpitis) so excessively painful. 

A. Because pulp is enclosed in a cavity with unyielding walls, where its 
expansion is impossible, and as its vessels become distended with blood, there 
is undue pressure upon its nerve filaments. 

Q. Is Pulpitis confined to carious teeth only. 

A. No ; teeth free from caries may be affected as well as decayed ones. 

Q. "What determines the severity of the pain. 

A. The structure and condition of the affected tooth, and state of health. 

Q. Besides irritation of Abulias, what other causts of Pulpitis. 

A. Contact of irritating matters (carious for example), mechanical violence, 
sudden thermal changes (heat and cold conveyed through tooth structure, or 
through a metallic filling), pressure of a filling on thin lamina of dentine, use 
of improper filling materials, improper use of the teeth, etc. 

Q. What constitutional symptoms may attend Pulpitis. 

A. Headache, earache, constipation, full, quick pulse, dry skin, furred 
tongue ; due perhaps to impaired health. 

Q. Is an inflamed pulp amenable to treatment. 

A. Yes, in the earlier stage of inflammation, when other conditions of 
system are favorable, as an inflamed pulp will recover if placed in good 
hygienic condition. 

Q. What is the Treatment of Pulpitis caused by an exposed pulp. 

A. Cleanse cavity of all extraneous and irritating matter, syringe with 
tepid water made alkaline by a little bicarbonate of soda, dry cavity, and 
make application of tincture of aconite; or cocaine, carbolic acid, glycerine 
and water ; or carbolic acid and chloroform ; or a paste of oxide of zinc and 
carbolic acid; or 10 per cent, solution of carbolic acid, oil of cloves, oil of 
cajeput, iodoform, iodol, iodoform and carbolic acid, carefully applied, and 
lightly confined in cavity ; if the cause is from pressure of a filling, this 
should be removed and the pulp treated as described; for constitutional 
symptoms when present, saline cathartics, blood letting, leeches, etc. If in- 
flammation has not advanced too far, the final treatment is capping pulps 
with oxychloride of zinc over oxide of zinc and carbolic acid. 

Q. What are the premonitory symptoms of the inflammation extending from 
pulp to peridental membrane. 

A. Uneasiness about root of tooth, a disposition to press on tooth which 
gives relief, a gnawing sensation, and gradually increasing discomfort or 

Q. When the inflammation of pulp results in suppuration how long does it 
take to run its course. 

A. The time varies, generally from three to ten days. 

Q. When pus has formed what measure may give relief. 

A. Drilling a vent-opening through crown, or neck, or through the root, 
for escape of pus. 

Q. May Pulpitis result in suppuration without the formation of an alveolar 

A. Yes, abscesses may form in the substance of the pulp, beginning at its 
surface near point of exposure, progress until the entire pulp becomes a mass 
of pus full of micro-organisms. 

Q. Does a dead pulp allowed to remain in a tooth invariably cause trouble. 

A. As a general rule it does sooner or later, although such a tooth may re- 


main quiet for weeks, months, or even .years, and the effects, in the form of 
suppuration and pain, be manifested as a result of thermal changes, exposure 
to draughts, or wet feet, etc. 

Q. Should a pulp be devitalized only to relieve pain. 

A. No, devitalization should only be resorted to after all other means to 
felieve the irritation or congestion have failed. 

Q. Why is the normal living pulp so necessary to the tooth. 

A. Because it is the nutrient organ of the tooth, and with the peridental 
membrane makes up the sensory functions of the tooth. 

Q. In a case of extreme agony from an irritable pulp what is the treatment. 

A. First palliative remedies ; remove all extraneous matters from cavity ; 
syringe with tepid water made slightly alkaline with carbonate of soda; then 
apply aconite and chloroform combined; if a careful examination shows the 
pain not to be due to actual exposure of pulp, apply either carbolic acid com- 
bined with iodoform, or acetate of morphia with oil of cloves, and afterwards 
a capping of laeto-phosphate of lime in form of paste, or iodoform, carbolic 
acid and oxide of zinc in same form, and over the capping a temporary filling 
of gutta percha, or oxychloride of zinc. 

Q. If the loss of the pulp is inevitable, how may it be devitalized. 

A. Either by the application of a devitalizing agent, such as arsenious acid; 
by immediate extirpation; or by the application of the actual cautery. 

Q. When arsenious acid is used how long is it necessary to keep it in contact 
with pulp. 

A. From twelve to twenty-four or forty-eight hours, according to strength 
of devitalizing combination, the presence of pain on its application, and the 
nature of the tooth structures. 

Q. How does arsenious acid act on the Pulp. 

A. By first exciting the sensory nerves, then paralyzing them, exciting a 
degree of inflammation in proportion to the quantity of arsenic employed; the 
excitement passing away, the arsenic is gradually absorbed. 

Q. Does death of the pulp immediately follow. 

A. No, if an excessive quantity is applied, the inflammation suddenly 
excited will resist the absorption of the arsenic; hence in many cases it is 
better to reduce the inflammation before applying the arsenic. 

Q. When properly applied after the inflammation has been reduced, what 
quantity of arsenious acid will devitalize the pulp. 

A. About one-hundredth part of a grain. 

Q. What is the quantity of arsenic usually employed for devitalizing pulps. 

A. From one twenty -fifth to one fiftieth of a grain, depending on position 
and character of exposure, and allowed to remain twenty-four hours. 

Q. After devitalization what should then be done with the pulp. 

A. Entirely removed with a steel, temper-drawn, barbed broach ; or better, 
by means of an instrument made of steel wire filed down to proper size, flafc- 
sened at extremity, and bent in the form of a delicate hook, and tempered at 
hook portion only. 

Q. How is such an instrument manipulated. 

A. By passing it carefully up canal as far as possible, then rotating it to 
cut off connection of pulp. 

Q. What is the proper method of applying and confining the arsenical pre- 
paration in the tooth. 


A. Dry out cavity, after removing debris of decay and foreign matter, as 
these may prevent action of arsenic on pulp tissue, make direct application of 
agent to pulp surface , cover this with a lead cap, and fill balance of cavity 
with gutta percha. 

Q. What is the result from carelessness in permitting arsenic to come in 
contact with soft tissues, such as the gum. 

A. Extensive sloughings. 

Q. Is the arsenic readily absorbed by organic matter. 

A. Yes, hence the greatest care must be observed in its use. 

Q. How long a time should elapse after the arsenic has acted, before the 
attempt is made to remove the dead pulp. 

A. Some prefer waiting for several days or even a week or more, until par- 
tial sloughing of pulp occurs, when it may be removed painlessly. 

Q. How may the pulp be devitalized and removed with a minimum amount 
of pain. 

A. By the use of local anaesthetics, and the galvano-cautery. 

Q. Why is it necessary to remove the dental pulp from the teeth. 

A. To prevent the putrefaction which would ensue from its presence and 
subsequent periodontitis and alveolar abscess. 

Q. When is the proper time for filling the roots after the removal of the 

A. The. safest method is to apply an antiseptic dressing to root canals, such 
as oil of eucalyptus, eugenol, or eugenol and iodoform, or oil of cloves, and let 
case rest for a short time, so as to overcome any putrefaction which may occur 
from a collection of fluid and lymph in canal. 

Q. What is the method of destroying pulps of single root teeth by means of 
a blow on a piece of wood introduced into root canal. 

A. A piece of hickory or orange wood in filed down and smoothed by emory 
paper to a fine attenuated point of such a size as will enter pulp canal. The 
end of this is moistened in carbolic acid, and being introduced as far into the 
canal as can be done without causing pain, a sudden well directed blow with a 
hand mallet drives the point of the wood into the pulp, an operation which is 
either painless according to the experience of some patients, or causes £>ain of 
yery short duration. 


Q. Into what two processes may the Filling of Teeth be divided. 

A. Into Surgical and Mechanical. 

Q. What does the Surgical comprise. 

A. Separation of teeth, relief of sensibility, removal of carious portion, the 
formation of the cavity to retain the filling. 

Q. What does the Mechanical comprise. 

A. Preparation of filling material, insertion and finishing of filling. 

Q. What is the period of life when caries is most active. 

A. From eighth to thirtieth year. 

Q. Is the occurrence of caries in deciduous teeth an indication that it will 
also occur in permanent teeth. 

A. Yes ; hence constant care and frequent inspection are necessary 


Q. What may be determined by special examinations of the teeth. 

A. Number, position, and extent of carious cavities. 

Q. Where should the examination of the teeth be commenced. 

A. At the median line, and each tooth on the right and left sides carefully 

Q. What is the preliminary step to the treatment of caries in the proximate 
surfaces of teeth. 

A. The securement of space by temporary separations. 

Q. How are teeth thus separated. 

A. By the swelling of cotton or tape, the resilience of strips of india rubber, 
and immediate wedging. 

Q. Where is immediate wedging most applicable. 

A. To the front teeth when but little space is required for examination, and 
the treatment of small cavities. 

Q. How is immediate separation made. 

A. By wedges of wood, and metallic separators acting on the wedge 

Q. How is superficial caries treated. 

A. By removing the soft carious part, and cutting away so much of the 
adjacent solid structure with chisels, as to make a plane surface ; then polish- 
ing the cut surface by corundum Hour, pumice, and oxide of tin. 

Q. How should the cutting be done on proximal surfaces. 

A. In such a manner that while the teeth touch at a small point near cut- 
ting edge, they are apart near gum, and the inner portion of space is made 
larger than the outer portion; the form of surface should appear slightly 
rounded; this gives a self-cleansing space. 

Q. Is such cutting away of the front teeth of children which have a ten- 
dency to overlap, objectionable. 

A. Yes, it would only enhance the irregularity. 

Q. Why is such cutting away of proximate surfaces of bicuspids and molars 
except in space between inferior bicuspids, objectionable. 

A. Because so much would have to be cut away as to disfigure the teeth, 
and the artificial space thus made to prevent proximal closure, would permit 
the food to be forced against the gum and result in discomfort and injury. 

Q. In what part of the tooth is the manifestation of dentinal sensibility 
greatest, when excavating. 

A. Near line of junction of enamel and dentine, and on the direct radiant 
line from the coruna of pulp to the periphery of the dentine. 

Q. In what direction should the movements of the cutting instruments be 

A. Away from the pulp. 

Q. How is the application of heated air made for relief of sensitive dentine. 

A. Dry cavity thoroughly, and use a hot air syringe, the first blasts made 
at intervals of a few seconds ; as pain diminishes by the moisture of cavity 
being removed, the force of the blasts of hot air is increased, and the inter- 
missions shorter and less frequent, until the pain ceases, when the operation 
can be gone through with. 

Q. What is Dr Bogue's method of using veratria combined with carbolic 

A. Protect tooth by rubber dam, appty the following combination, wait a 


time, cleanse with alcohol and air — dry the cavity : veratria, gr. vj ; pure car- 
bolic acid, gr. vj ; absolute alcohol minims, vj ; glycerine, gtt. v. 

Q. For what cases is nitrate of silver serviceable. 

A. The sensibility of dentine after removal of superficial caries, and that 
occurring about necks of teeth ; but only for posterior teeth. 

Q. What may be resorted to in cases of extreme sensibility of dentine when 
other remedies fail. 

A. Anaesthesia as far as second stage of cerebral excitement, by means of 
sulphuric ether. 

Q. What temporary filling materials may afford relief in sensitive dentine 
by slight thermal irritation, which excites calcification of the fibrillae. 

A. Gutta percha, oxyphospliate and oxyehloride of zinc. 

Q. Of these which is the most effective. 

A. Oxyehloride of zinc, although it may be more irritating at first. 

Q. Why is it dangerous to use arsenious acid for sensibility of dentine. 

A. Because of its tendency to devitalize the pulp, as it is readily absorbed. 

Q. In preparing a cavity for filling, to what extent should it be opened. 

A. So as to render all parts accessible; or easy access to every portion. 

Q. What is the general rule in opening cavities. 

A. To remove all of carious portion from about orifice, and also all over- 
hanging portions of enamel liable to be broken down in the process of filling, 
or afterwards by the force of mastication, or, although strong, will not admit 
of gold being properly inserted, etc. 

Q. What are the general rules in regard to the formation of cavities for 
retaining the filling. 

A. The sides for a certain distance within orifice should be nearly transverse 
to the plane of the general face of the proposed filling, and should have an 
inward divergent direction ; such sides may be grooved or Undercut to secure 
retention of filling, such undercuts or grooves extending to all parts of the 
boundary, which may be done except in cases where, owing to loss of struc- 
ture, a contour filling is required, when retaining pits may be resorted to, or 
gold screws ; the borders or margins of cavity should be counter-sunk to 
protect them from injury during introduction of filling, and to facilitate the 
perfect adaptation of the gold to such margins, and to permit the gold to be 
carried to the outer limits of the surfaces of certain teeth as a protection 
against force of mastication as in the case of proximal fillings; the counter- 
sinking will also enable the margins of a cavity to be well defined in the 
finishing and polishing process, and the degree of countersinking will vary 
from the removal of the acute edge to a depth corresponding to the thickness 
of the enamel ; deeper for cohesive than for non-cohesive gold. 

Q. What is meant by a Simple Cavity. 

A. One permitting easy and direct approach to all parts of it, and bounded 
by strong walls, such as are confined to grinding, buccal, labial and palatine 

Q. What may be termed an Ordinary Cavity. 

A. One with an indirect approach, where the instruments cannot be applied 
at any desired angle, such as proximal surface cavities. 

Q. What is meant by a Compound Cavity. 

A. Cavities left by the union of two which began on different surfaces, coal- 
esence occuring by the extension of the decay from each. 

7 6 

Q. What is the method of opening and forming simple cavities. 

A. First cut down enamel at central part until orifice is nearly as large as 
interior; if sulci are present, these should be opened out to their extremities, 
although they need not be made so deep as the larger part of cavity; no more 
need be cut away from larger part or from sulci than will leave perpendicular 
walls, and a concave bottom; or a slight groove or undercut may be made 
around the larger part of the cavity, within the margin of the enamel. 

Q. How may Labial surface Cavities be prepared. 

A. Procure a regular outline by small chisels or wheel-bur in the healthy 
enamel ; a retaining point in each lateral wall if cavity is shallow ; if bmad, 
a slight groove around but within the margin; the floor be made flat vertically 
but correspond to general outline of tooth horizontally; slight countersunk 
margins to well define outline. 

Q. How may Buccal surface Cavities be prepared. 

A. The walls or sides should be made transverse to a flat floor; and on 
account of more difficult approach by interference of cheek, the sides should 
be undercut to make the introduction of the filling easier, and facilitate the 
retention of the first pieces of gold. 

Q. How may Palatal and Lingual Surface Cavities be prepared. 

A. Opened by directing drill nearly parallel to axis of tooth, and finish 
removal of caries with small round-ended excavators; when on lingual sur- 
faces of inferior molars operation is more difficult owing to inward inclination 
of these teeth, interference of tongue, and the pulp being close to this surface; 
a wheel drill is best for removing caries and forming cavity; amalgam is pre- 
ferred by many for such cavities. 

Q. How prepare Proximate surface Cavities. 

A. For Small Proximate Cavities of Front Teeth : Separate sufficiently, define 
margins with thin enamel chisels; and it is admissable to remove a small part 
of palatal surface to facilitate approach ; then with small rose-drills or exca- 
vators, remove caries and form cavity from palatine surface; square cervical 
wall, slightly groove palatal wall with small-wheel burr, or a bent hoe-shaped 
excavator, slightly countersink and smooth surface of enamel. 

For Large Proximate Cavities in Front teeth ; Labial Wall Perfect : Make re- 
quired separation; operate from palatine surface; cut down at middle part of 
palatal enamel wall nearly to bottom of cavity to secure easy access; cut 
away thin palatal wall with a chisel, until a greater thickness is reached, and 
remove caries with a thin spoon-shaped excavator; as cavity extends from neck 
to near cutting edge and is usually nearer palatal than labial surface, the 
latter having a concave border on inner surface, it need not be undercut or 
grooved ; allow normal dentine to remain at base of labial margin, leaving a 
concave instead of flat bottom; make a retaining pit in the base of palatal 
wall near cervical wall which is generally thick enough, and a small groove 
from this pit to channel of approach; cut the cervicle wall up to cementum, 
so that no thin line of enamel is left at that point ; make cervical wall trans- 
verse to axis of tooth, and a retaining pit may be made in the wall. 

For Large Proximate Cavities in Front Teeth ; Labial Wall Imperfect : No 
support can be had from remaining part of labial wall, hence all must be 
made in tuberosity or thick part of base of this wall near the cervical, upon 
the inner plate of enamel, and by a retaining pit in cervical wall ; separate 
sufficiently; open cavity by cutting away labial wall until a smooth strong 


border is obtained, with a regular curve; allow greater part of palatal wall, if 
perfect, to remain, or remove as little as is necessary for safety, and to bring 
gold a little over edge of tbis wall if lower teeth are abrading it; cut down 
cervical wall squarely and extend cavity at cervical wall to cementum, if other- 
wise, a thin line of enamel only would remain; make retaining pit and groove 
in outer part of cervical wall, and a slight undercut along base of labial and 
palatal wall. 

Fov Proximate Cavities in Front Teeth extending to Cutting Edge : The Labial 
wall being usually frail, and pulp alive, all support is to be obtained by cut- 
ting into stronger and thicker parts at base of cavity; such cavities require 
contour fillings, and it is often necessary to remove angle of crown at cutting 
edge and restore it with gold ; where caries of this nature occurs on teeth 
worn to thick cutting edges, a dovetail form of cavity on cutting edge, may 
afford retention. 

Q. How Prepare Cavities on Mesial Surfaces of Bicuspids and Molars. 

A. For small simple cavities wide separations are necessary if the grinding 
surface is not cut into in order to approach such cavities ; if so, then a slight 
separation is required; but location of small cavities on such surfaces will 
determine this point ; if cavity can be approached without cutting away 
grinding surface, the case is simple; if near grinding surface, the over- 
hanging enamel should be cut away and a compound cavity made; the great- 
est objection to forming small simple cavities of this kind on such surfaces, is 
the probability of the teeth coming together, and failure from caries, When 
cavity is confined to mesial surface, the formation is done with rose-drills and 
the cavity extended towards gum ; some prefer to extend slightly below gum 
if tooth is of poor structure; some also prefer to open cavity by cutting away 
buccal margin and permit gold to appear slightly in front; a groove is made 
in both outer and inner walls; a shallow retaining pit in cervical walls, and a 
pit towards or under each cusp. Larger cavities in this surface necessitate 
the removal of more of the grinding surface leaving a dove-tailed or triangu- 
lar space, which serves to anchor the filling; the filling having to be built on 
cervical wall, if lateral walls are frail, hence its surface should be made trans- 
verse to axis of tooth, and its outline should meet that of outer and inner 
walls by an easy curve, not by an angular one; fissure drills and chisels may 
be used for forming margins of walls, so as to form a double dovetail, one on 
mesial and the other on grinding surface. 

Q. Why is it dangerous to make retaining points or pits at apex of proximal 
surface cavities. 

A. Because such weaken the plates of enamel that come together at that 

Q. How prepare Distal Surface Cavities of Bicuspids and Molars. 

A. The grinding surface wall is generally removed to afford easy approach; 
cut away grinding surface wall at central part to bottom of cavity, if lateral 
walls are strong ; cut grooves in lateral walls and extend them, if admissible, 
into sulci of grinding surface. 

Q. How may Grinding Surface Cavities of Bicuspids and Molars be 

A. Determine extent of sulci caries ; open with fissure drills and gouge- 
shaped chisels; in cutting out sulci, extend opening until it includes entire 
fissure; make extremities round, not angular, for better adaptation of gold; 


■when fissures are large, use small curved chisels, or fissure drills ; begin at 
central part, and make parallel walls or sides to the grooves ; in bicuspids 
the caries usually commence in two pits in sulci joined by a slight line, which 
should be cut through so as to unite the pits which are to be opened out ; in 
case one of the sulci of grinding surface of an upper molar is connected with 
sulci of palatine surface, they should be connected in opening- them out ; and 
the same should be done in case of lower molars where sulci of grinding sur- 
faces joins sulci on buccal surfaces. 

Q. How prepare deep Grinding Surface Cavities. 

A. Cut down with chisels the overhanging enamel at central part, until 
orifice is as large, or nearly so, as interior, and open out any sulci which 
may extend from central part; but depth of opened out sulci need not be as 
great as central cavitj-, and their width need not be greatly increased ; the 
floor of cavity can be left irregular, and not be flat ; better to make it concave; 
the perpendicular part of cavity need not be deeper than thickness of enamel, 
if c, ries has not penetrated further ; the margins should be counter-sunk by 
bud-shaped burrs or corundum points. 


Q. What preliminary measures are necessary for obtaining Impressions of 

A. Note condition of oral secretions and mucous membrane ; if oral secre- 
tions are thick and viscid, rinse with warm water, or solutions of salt and 
alum; if mucous membrane is very soft and spongy, use for some time dilute 
phenol sodique or other astringent mouth-wash. 

Q. What is the method of obtaining a Full Upper Impression in Plastic 
Materials such as Wax, Gutta Percha, or Modeling Composition. 

A. Operator stands to right and a little back of patient, who occupies a 
common chair; direct patient to open mouth but not too wide as this lessens 
size of orifice laterally; press away right side of mouth with corner of cup, 
and distend left side of mouth with one or two fingers of left hand, pass cup 
and contents into the mouth, adjust it to ridge, then press up evenly and 
firmly until all parts are imbedded in material; direct patient to draw down 
upper lip, and with finger over it, the operator presses all around the rim, at 
the same time keeping the cup in position by a firm pressure over its concave 
surface with middle finger of left hand, while the thumb and forefinger retain 
hold of handle of cup. 

Q. How may such an Impression be safely removed from mouth. 

A. In case of plastic materials it is best done by directing patient to give a 
cough, or expel air forcibly from lungs, or attempt to swallow, and thus over- 
come the atmospheric pressure. 

Q. How can such substances be hardened before removal from mouth. 

A. By ice water on a small napkin, or a piece of ice in napkin. 

Q. What general form of cup is necessary in Full Lower Impressions. 

A. One which conforms to height and thickness of ridge, with sides of 
sufficient depth and width. 

Q. What is the method of obtaining a Full Lower Impression in same 


A. The patient is seated in an operating chair, the head against head-rest, 
and operator to the right and more to the front; the cup introduced in 
same manner as for full upper impression and no downward pressure made 
until it is well adjusted to ridge, the cheeks pressed away to prevent includ- 
ing folds of membrane between cup and ridge; the patient directed to raise 
ana protrude tongue so as to free inner side of ridge of fold of membrane to 
its full depth, the tongue is then drawn back into mouth, after cup is in posi- 
tion over ridge, and downward pressure is made on cup over region of bicus- 
pids on each side with two fingers of each hand, while the thumbs are on each 
side under jaw. In removing impression, one angle of cup should pass out of 
orifice of mouth first after the entire impression is raised clear of ridge. 

Q. What is the method of obtaining Full Upper and Lower Impressions 
in Wax and Plaster combined. 

A. First obtain the impression in wax; then remove about one line of thick- 
ness of wax surface after hardening it; mix a thin batter of plaster, and cover 
with it the surface of wax impression. Return whole to mouth, adjust it to 
ridge and make pressure upwards, hold firmly in position until it hardens; 
remove and prepare surface for pouring model. 

Q. What precautions are necessary in the use of Modeling Composition. 

A. Place tissue or other paper in the bottom of a shallow pan to prevent 
material from adhering, use boiling water to soften it, dry on a cloth after 
removal from water; pass impression cup over a flame, or immerse it in the 
hot water, then dry its surface to prevent the material from leaving cup on 
withdrawing it from mouth ; build it into cup to approximate form of arch, 
leaving a surface free of folds; then proceed as with wax, pressing it well 
around outside of ridge, and with index finger upward and forward to part 
overhanging back of cup. Allow it to cool for about a minute retaining it 
firmly in position, and then carefully remove it from mouth, so that its sides 
are not compressed by corners of mouth; plunge it into cold water until hard; 
and remove from water only when ready to pour model. 

Q. How may a Partial Impression be obtained with wax and plaster com- 

A. By first taking an impression with wax, and when hard, removing a line 
in depth of entire surface, and enlarging impressions of the natural teeth; 
then score the entire wax surface with point of knife to enable plaster to 
'adhere to it; then pour thin batter of plaster over wax surface, filling also 
impressions of teeth and return to mouth; if on removal any portion of plas- 
ter should break away from wax surface, it can be accurately restored. 

Q. How may a Full Upper Impression in Plaster be obtained. 

A. Select cup a little larger than mouth; if palatine portion of mouth is 
high, wax may be built up on cup to raise it in centre. To prevent plaster 
batter from running from back of cup a slight rim of wax may be built across; 
fill cup with plaster batter just thick enough to run in a stream; insert cup as 
for wax impression and press up gently with rear slightly in advance of the 
front; retain in mouth until the surplus plaster in bowl breaks with a sharp 
fracture; then remove impression by first wetting finger and with it raise lips 
and cheeks, and carefully make pressure on handle of cup ; if this does not 
loosen it, direct patient to give a slight cough, or attempt to swallow, which 
will admit air and break up the atmospheric pressure; where there is a deep 
undercut, draw impression forward and downward at same time. 


Q. How obtain a Full Lower Impression in Plaster. 

A. At times it may be necessary to deepen rim of cup with wax, at other 
times to cut it away; mix plaster batter just thick enough to be retained in 
cup when it is inverted, and place enough in cup so that it may extend well 
down on inside of ridge at the back ; before introducing cup press out cheeks 
with finger or handle of mouth glass, so that membrane does not fold over 
ridge; or have patient raise tongue above cup as soon as cup is placed in 
mouth, and before pressing it down over ridge; after pressing cup down, 
have patient lower tongue to force plaster close to ridge; slightly press cheeks 
against plaster, and allow it to harden, after which raise lips and cheeks away 
from cup, and raise up with handle, and remove from mouth. 

Q. How may Partial Impressions in Plaster be obtained. 

A. By making impromptu cups of sheet gutta percha, shaped over a 
model made from wax impressions of mouth, and cup so flexible as to allow it 
to be bent outwards at points opposite undercuts or dove-tailed spaces between 
teeth, and thus fracture the thin plaster covering surface of such a cup, the 
parts being afterwards restored to proper positions. 

The surface of gutta percha cup is roughened with point of a warm blade 
of knife, to assure adhesion of plaster to it; or another method may be resort- 
ed to for upper partial impressions; place enough plaster against palatal 
surface to fill mouth even with grinding surfaces of teeth; if it is desired to 
obtain impression of buccal and labial surfaces place a little plaster inside of 
rim of cup then insert cup in mouth so that it passes beyond the plaster, using 
same precautions as for a full impression. 

Q. For securing a Partial Lower Impression in Plaster when teeth are 
irregular, or stand in different directions, what is the method. 

A. First obtain an impression in wax, and from it a plaster model; then fit 
wax caps over entire crowns of plaster teeth, but not the necks; remove wax 
caps from model and place them on natural teeth; then take the impression 
in the usual manner and remove it same as a full impression ; replace plaster 
that may break around necks of teeth in impression. 

Q. When should Partial Plaster Impressions be removed from mouth. 

A. Where there are no undercuts or dovetails as soon as it hardens enough 
to break with a sharp fracture; otherwise allow plaster to become very hard, 
so that cup may be detached and the plaster cut into and removed in sections 
which are afterwards replaced. 

Q. How may the Articulation be obtained. 

A. For metal work the metallic plate is used; for vulcanite or celluloid a 
base plate of wax, gutta percha, paraffine and wax, or modeling composition, 
is necessary, such base plate being softened and shaped over plaster model; 
a rim of wax is built upon the plate over alveolar ridge, of the form of the 
arch; tried in mouth and trimmed or added to as required, and so placed as to 
restore contour; to prevent too close a bite a small block of soft wood is in- 
serted in the wax rim at a point opposite occluding front teeth, the grain of 
the wood running parallel with ridge so that small portions may be easily split 
off until the proper length of teeth is obtained, which is determined by lower 
natural teeth coming in contact with block of wood, and thus preventing 
patient from biting too far into wax rim. 

Q. When in mouth, and lips at rest in natural position, what should be the 
size of the wax rim. 


A. About one sixteenth of an inch for upper bite, and one sixteenth shorter 
than lip for lower bite. 
Q. Should patients ever be requested to "bite" naturally. 
A. No, as they are certain to do just the opposite. 
Q. How is Articulating Model made. 

A. For full upper or lower case the wax articulation is placed upon model 
in case of plastic work (or plaster is run into palatal surface of plate in metal 
work), and fastened by passing a heated spatula around edges. If a metal 
articulator is used, the model with articulation is secured to this with plaster; 
the cavities made in wax by teeth are then filled with thin plaster batter, and 
by jarring, each plaster tooth is made perfect; enough of plaster somewhat 
stiffer is built upon this to bring it even with top or bottom of articulator, this 
is smoothed and allowed to harden, when it is separated, and wax removed; 
the base plate is then fastened to the model, and teeth arranged on it; if the 
case is of metal, pouring the plaster into concave surface of metal plate, and 
building it up to top or bottom of articulator, forms the half part, and the 
teeth are arranged on the metal plate. Another method is to obtain a wax 
impression of opposite jaw and a plaster model from this; the plaster teeth of 
this model are inserted into depressions made in wax articulation by the 
natural teeth, and fastened by means of melted wax ; all parts are then 
attached to metal articulator as before described. 

Q. Describe how outline of a full upper denture may be marked on plaster 

A. Begin at heel of model, do not encroach on soft palate, hence, curve the 
plate-line to avoid doing so; extend line so as to cover condyles or maxillary 
tuberosities; extend it as high as possible on outside of ridge without interfer- 
ing with muscles and reflected portions of membrane of cheeks and lips, and 
as outline is drawn forward allow room for fraena on either side and front of 
mouth; carry outline as high on outside of ridge as plate can be borne with 
comfort, the highest points over canines, and a lower line back of such 

Q. What should the Vacuum Cavity conform to in shape. 

A. Somewhat to general contour of palatal arch; if this is broad, make cavity 
broad; if long and narrow, make cavity long and narrow. 

Q. What is the general rule in regard to size of Vacuum Cavity. 

A. About one quarter the area of space enclosed by a line drawn around 
centre of ridge and back edge of plate. 

Q. How mark outline of vacuum cavity. 

A. Do not extend it over rugae, if possible, and let it be at least one-eighth 
of inch inside of back edge of plate. 

Q. How mark outline for a Full Lower Denture. 

A. Carry line on model as far over ridge on outside as the integument will 
allow, and give room for fraena; on inside let outline be drawn so that plate 
will rest in depression extending along inner surface of ridge; the back of 
plate should just cover curve of gum so that edge will not interfere wilh 
tongue ; the plate must not be too wide, nor extend too far back; if integu- 
ments greatly overlap ridge, mark outline so that plate is quite narrow. 

Q. How mark outline for Partial Upper Dentures. 

A. So that it may fit accurately around remaining natural teeth, but not rest 
on them. 


Q. How outline Partial Lower Dentures containing Bicuspids and Molars. 

A. Let plate extend in front up over lingual surfaces of six anterior natural 
teeth, (not cut out to extend around such teeth,) that plate may not press 
painfully on gums, and also for the reason that a thinner plate can be made 
to extend back of anterior natural teeth, which although thin is stiff and un- 
yielding owing to its peculiar shape, all of which is secured by allowing plate 
to extend just aoove rounded portion of natural teeth and rest on the broad, 
flat surfaces approaching their cutting edges. 

Q. How far down should outline of such a plate extend on front part, inside. 

A. So far down behind six front teeth that tip of tongue will not be liable to 
get under it. 

Q. When lower teeth anterior to 2nd or 3d molars are to be inserted, how 
form Plate. 

A. A tip or tongue of metal may be attached to back part of plate over 
ridge, so as to extend up the mesial surface of natural molar on each side of 
mouth, and slightly over crown on grinding surface; such tongue of metal 
will assist in holding denture in position by hooking over molar, and 
transfer pressure of mastication from gum to molar on each side. 

Q. How determine when jaws close properly in securing the " Bite " or 

A. By arresting the movement of mouth in act of speaking; or by having 
patient place tip of tongue against roof of mouth on opening mouth, and 
retaining it in that position oa closing mouth, or biting into wax rim; or by 
depressing chin on breast, and then causing the mouth to be closed. 

Q. How may proper length of "Bite" be determined. 

A. By the general expression — the lips should rest easily together, without 
effort, stretching or pouting. 

Q. At what points is considerable fullness of gum usually required to give 
expression and reduce wrinkles from angle of nose to corners of month. 

A. Over canine teeth. 

Q. Where should fullness of gum be avoided. 

A. Under nose. 

Q. What determines selection of Plain or Gum teeth for a Denture. 

A. Degree of absorption of process; presence of roots of teeth; unusual pro- 
jection necessary; or irregular arrangement required. 

Q. In selecting Artificial Teeth what points have to be considered. 

A. Size, shape, color, maracter, peculiarities, and, for partial cases, teeth 
to match remaining natural ones. 

Q. As regards Size. 

A. The width and length generally, and especially the relative width and 
length of central and lateral incisors and canines. 

Q. As regards Shape 

A. Whether teeth are to be perfectly straight or wedge-shaped, larger in 
diameter across cutting edges than across necks. 

Q. As regards Character. 

A. Whether teeth are to be flat or curved (convex) on labial surfaces, curved 
transversely or from gum to cutting edge; whether thin, translucent, and of 
delicate form, or thick, dense, and massive. 

Q. As to Peculiarities. 

A. The presence or absence of grooves, ridges or lines transversely or longi- 


tudinally over crowns; shape of cutting edges according to age, or some 
peculiar form, straight or rounded; whether uniformity in shape is desirable 
or more of curvature on posterior than anterior edge. 

Q. As regards Shade. 

A. Should match natural teeth if any remain, except when latter are greatly 
discolored, then the color of artificial should be the least noticeable; rather a 
little too dark than too kght. 

Q. As regards any difference in Size. 

A. No difference if possible; if any is necessary, larger teeth can be ground 
down so as not to mar them — grind from sides or cutting edges, not from 
labial surfaces; better select teeth a little too large than too small. 

Q. As regards position of Pins. 

A. Cross pins will often interfere with natural teeth of opposite jaw, and 
such pins weaken teeth more than longitudinal pins. Cross pins afford more 
leverage, become stretched, and are liable to be broken off, and not suitable 
for close bites; but if the other pins will not answer, the backings should extend 
to cutting edge. For bridge-work, cross pins render teeth more liable to 
fracture in soldering. 

Q. How is width of artificial incisor teeth to be determined. 

A. By position of natural canines; also by space or not it is desired to make 
between incisors. 

Q. What position should the six anterior teeth of upper jaw occupy. 

A. Full width of jaw so as to partially conceal posterior teeth. 

Q. How should posterior artificial teeth be placed as regards proximity. 

A. Close together to prevent lodgement of food. 

Q. When are thin anterior teeth required. 

A. In close bites owing to occlusion of lower front teeth; also when jaws are 
small and tongue large. 

Q. As regards Strength. 

A. Select teeth that will not require so much grinding away as to endanger 
stability of their pins. 

Q. In arranging artificial teeth should curve be outward or inward. 

A. Outward curve. 

Q. In arranging an entire set of upper and lower teeth, how should the 
bicuspids and molars be placed. 

A. First upper bicuspids should articulate between 1st and 2nd lower bicus- 
pids, so that each tooth meets two opposing teeth. Upper first bicuspids 
should be partly hidden by canines, and upper bicuspids and molars should 
slightly project over corresponding lower teeth; inner or palatal cusps should 
meet as well as outer cusps. The lower teeth should be placed well on alveolar 
ridge and not incline too much outward, and enough space be given to tongue. 

Q. What teeth of an entire denture should be the longest 

A. The lower to ensure greater stability. 

Q. In grinding an entire denture, what teeth should be first arranged. 

A. Lower incisors. 

Q. The curves of arch in both jaws should be made by what teeth. 

A. By six anterior teeth. 

Q. The greatest pressure in masticating should be on what teeth. 

A. Second bicuspids and first molars; hence second molars should be some- 
what shorter. 


Q. How outline Partial Lower Dentures containing Bicuspids and Molars. 

A. Let plate extend in front up over lingual surfaces of six anterior natural 
teeth, (not cut out to extend around such teeth,) that plate may not press 
painfully on gums, and also for the reason that a thinner plate can be made 
to extend back of anterior natural teeth, which although thin is stiff and un- 
yielding owing to its peculiar shape, all of which is secured by allowing plate 
to extend just aoove rounded portion of natural teeth and rest on the broad, 
flat surfaces approaching their cutting edges. 

Q. How far down should outline of such a plate extend on front part, inside. 

A. So far down behind six front teeth that tip of tongue will not be liable to 
get under it. 

Q. When lower teeth anterior to 2nd or 3d molars are to be inserted, how 
form Plate. 

A. A tip or tongue of metal may be attached to back part of plate over 
ridge, so as to extend up the mesial surface of natural molar on each side of 
mouth, and slightly over crown on grinding surface; such tongue of metal 
will assist in holding denture in position by hooking over molar, and 
transfer pressure of mastication from gum to molar on each side. 

Q. How determine when jaws close properly in securing the " Bite " or 

A. By arresting the movement of mouth in act of speaking; or by having 
patient place tip of tongue against roof of mouth on opening mouth, and 
retaining it in that position on closing mouth, or biting into wax rim; or by 
depressing chin on breast, and then causing the mouth to be closed. 

Q. How may proper length of "Bite" be determined. 

A. By the general expression — the lips should rest easily together, without 
effort, stretching or pouting. 

Q. At what points is considerable fullness of gum usually required to give 
expression and reduce wrinkles from angle of nose to corners of month. 

A. Over canine teeth. 

Q. Where should fullness of gum be avoided. 

A. Under nose. 

Q. What determines selection of Plain or Gum teeth for a Denture. 

A. Degree of absorption of process; presence of roots of teeth; unusual pro- 
jection necessary; or irregular arrangement required. 

Q. In selecting Artificial Teeth what points have to be considered. 

A. Size, shape, color, maracter, peculiarities, and, for partial cases, teeth 
to match remaining natural ones. 

Q. As regards Size. 

A. The width and length generally, and especially the relative width and 
length of central and lateral incisors and canines. 

Q. As regards Shape 

A. Whether teeth are to be perfectly straight or wedge-shaped, larger in 
diameter across cutting edges than across necks. 

Q. As regards Character. 

A. Whether teeth are to be flat or curved (convex) on labial surfaces, curved 
transversely or from gum to cutting edge; whether thin, translucent, and of 
delicate form, or thick, dense, and massive. 

Q. As to Peculiarities. 

A. The presence or absence of grooves, ridges or lines transversely or longi- 


tudinally over crowns; shape of cutting edges according to age, or some 
peculiar form, straight or rounded; whether uniformity in shape is desirable 
or more of curvature on posterior than anterior edge. 

Q. As regards Shade. 

A. Should match natural teeth if any remain, except when latter are greatly 
discolored, then the color of artificial should be the least noticeable; rather a 
little too dark than too light. 

Q. As regards any difference in Size. 

A. No difference if possible; if any is necessary, larger teeth can be ground 
down so as not to mar them — grind from sides or cutting edges, not from 
labial surfaces; better select teeth a little too large than too small. 

Q. As regards position of Pins. 

A. Cross pins will often interfere with natural teeth of opposite jaw, and 
such pins weaken teeth more than longitudinal pins. Cross pins afford more 
leverage, become stretched, and are liable to be broken off, and not suitable 
for close bites; but if the other pins will not answer, the backings should extend 
to cutting edge. For bridge-work, cross pins render teeth more liable to 
fracture in soldering. 

Q. How is width of artificial incisor teeth to be determined. 

A. By position of natural canines; also by space or not it is desired to make 
between incisors. 

Q. What position should the six anterior teeth of upper jaw occupy. 

A. Full width of jaw so as to partially conceal posterior teeth. 

Q. How should posterior artificial teeth be placed as regards proximity. 

A. Close together to prevent lodgement of food. 

Q. When are thin anterior teeth required. 

A. In close bites owing to occlusion of lower front teeth; also when jaws are 
small and tongue large. 

Q. As regards Strength. 

A. Select teeth that will not require so much grinding away as to endanger 
stability of their pins. 

Q. In arranging artificial teeth should curve be outward or inward. 

A. Outward curve. 

Q. In arranging an entire set of upper and lower teeth, how should the 
bicuspids and molars be placed. 

A. First upper bicuspids should articulate between 1st and 2nd lower bicus- 
pids, so that each tooth meets two opposing teeth. Upper first bicuspids 
should be partly hidden by canines, and upper bicuspids and molars should 
slightly project over corresponding lower teeth; inner or palatal cusps should 
meet as well as outer cusps. The lower teeth should be placed well on alveolar 
ridge and not incline too much outward, and enough space be given to tongue. 

Q. What teeth of an entire denture should be the longest 

A. The lower to ensure greater stability. 

Q. In grinding an entire denture, what teeth should be first arranged. 

A. Lower incisors. 

Q. The curves of arch in both jaws should be made by what teeth. 

A. By six anterior teeth. 

Q. The greatest pressure in masticating should be on what teeth. 

A. Second bicuspids and first molars; hence second molars should be some- 
what shorter. 

8 4 

Q. Should the lower teeth occupy an oblique or perpendicular position. 

A. Perpendicular, as it is seldom necessary to incline them outward or in- 
ward; even when lower jaw projects somewhat, lower teeth should be per- 
pendicular and upper teeth project outwards to meet them. 

Q. What is the advantage of trying teeth in mouth after the}' are ground 
and temporarily arranged. 

A. To determine articulation and expression; and to make any necessary 


Q. What change does dental vulcanite undergo when subjected to heat and 

A. A molecular change known as "Vulcanization." 

Q. What does this molecular change bring about. 

A. Increase in hardness and specific gravity, and decrease in susceptibility 
to atmospheric influences. 

Q. When does expansion and shrinkage occur during the vulcanizing of 
dental vulcanite. 

A. As temperature rises the rubber expands; when vulcanizing heat is at- 
tained and temperature becomes stationary, the mass begins to solidif.y, and 
at such a stage gains in specific gravity and shrinks. 

Q. What is the looseness a tooth standing alone on a partial denture due to. 

A. The shrinkage of the rubber. 

Q. How may this shrinkage be prevented, and no spaces left under teeth for 
putrefying food. 

A. By packing in enough rubber to perfectly fill mould, and retaining 
enough to ensure a full mould at end of vulcanizing process. 

Q. How may enough rubber be retained to ensure a full mould. 

A. By interposing pieces of heavy tin-foil between the two halves of tlask, 
so that it will 'not be fully closed; then, after the denture is about half vul- 
canized, remove flask, take out the pieces of tin foil and apply spring-pressure 
until the flask is completely closed; the second heating should immediately 
follow the first, to prevent the pressure from breaking down plaster model 
which soon disintegrates and softens. 

Q. How thick should these tin foil pieces between flask be. 

A. For upper dentures — No. 30; for very light cases=thinner; for heavy 
lower dentures — No. 24. 

Q. How may sponginess or porosity be avoided in vulcanizing thick pieces 
of rubber. 

A. By longer time to raise heat to vulcanizing point, and not raising it 
beyond a vulcanizing degree; also, by packing inside red rubber, pink rubber, 
weighted rubber, or pieces of old rubber plates, filed all over to secure clean 
surfaces; the more old rubber used the less will also be the shrinkage; the 
old should be completely covered by the new rubber to prevent difference of 

Q. Is pure or adulterated rubber more liable to become porous. 

A. The pure rubber. 

Q. What is warping of old dentures due to when vulcanized a second time. 


A. Contraction of the rubber. 

Q. How may this contraction be remedied. 

A. If a new denture, by warming the palatal edge enough to soften rubber, 
and bending it downwards to relieve the pressure on palatal surface at point 
causing irritation. 

Q. If an old denture is so warped as to impair its fit, how may it be restored. 

A. Widen it at condyles, by first directing light puffs of blow pipe flame 
on part back of central incisors until rubber is softened through for a space size 
of quarter of dollar; then seize denture by condyles with both hands, and pull 
them forcibly apart, and at same time dip denture in cold water. 

Q. What is cracking of sectional blocks due to. 

A. Either to excessive pressure in packing too much rubber; or attempting 
to close flask before enclosed rubber is well softened; or not allowing time for 
rubber to flow; or by contraction of rubber in cooling; or careless handling 
after removal from vulcanizer. 

Q. Is rubber very sensitive to changes of temperature. 

A. It is the most sensitive of any solid body. 

Q. What causes chipping of edges of blocks. 

A. If blocks are ground too much in rear so that only a narrow surface is 
left for contact at gum surface; or contraction, if rim of plate is thick and 
holds edges of gum. 

Q. What will prevent this chipping. 

A. Grind to square edges so that rubber will not have hold upon them; if 
either corner of edge is ground sharp, it should be the front, not the rear one. 

Q. How should the waxing-up be done. 

A. Wax should not overhang gums but be flush with gum, and surplus for 
finishing be secured by scraping off a little of the plaster after Masking and 
before packing. 

Q. What should be the form of surface of denture immediately back of 

A. Convex instead of concave, by filling in behind incisors in waxing-up, so 
that surface of plate will form an easy "reversed curve" beginning with 
palatal surfaces of incisors, and extending backwards nearly or quite half an 
inch over plate before normal thickness of plate is reached. 

Q. What defect will such a contour of surface correct. 

A. The whistling or whirring S sound caused by incorrect contour. 

Q. How are partial "spring plates" of vulcanite made. 

A. By scraping away a little plaster from palatal portion of bicuspids and 
molars upon the model, and in waxing-up allow wax to extend half an inch 
from teeth all around, the plate being so narrow that centre of palate is un- 

Q. What is the objection to such plates. 

A. Tendency to force teeth outward. 

Q. How may the form of a Vulcanite denture be changed. 

A. By heating in oven with teeth downwards, or in boiling water, then 
placed on a new model of mouth, forced into position with a cloth, and held 
until cold. 

Q. How remove teeth from a vulcanite denture. 

A. Either passed through a flame until hot; immersed in oil and boiled; or 
covering denture with hot, dry sand. 


Q. How reset a tooth or block with Amalgam. 

A. Form a globulat-shaped undercut iu plate, grind tooth or block into 
place, and retain it while packing in amalgam. 

Q. How reset a tooth or block with Woods' Fusible Metal. 

A. Enlarge socket within, cut a dovetail in plate for anchorage; mold metal 
into socket with a heated spatula; heat tooth so that it will melt the metal, and 
then press it into place; protect thumb with cloth or chamois, and smooth the 

Q. How may a hole in plate be filled up. 

A. Countersink on both sides, and make oblong or angular. 

Q. How is liquid rubber made. 

A. By cutting vulcanite into small pieces and immersing them in benzine, 
turpentine, chloroform, ether, or bisulphide of carbon; useful in uniting old 
to new rubber in vulcanizing. 

Q. How may a small hole in a plate be closed. 

A. By mixing gum shellac and vulcanite filings, heating them and dropping 
into hole, and afterwards smoothing with a hot spatula. 

Q. How strong should Vulcanizers be made. 

A. Strong enough to withstand a pressure three or four times as great as is 
required for vulcanizing. 

Q. What Process gradually weakens and destroys Vulcanizers. 

A. Corrosion, wholly upon sides of boiler, and at middle metal may waste 
away until scarcely thicker than paper. 

Q. How can the weakness be determined. 

A. Tapping boiler with a two ounce hammer; if metal is thick and strong, 
hammer will rebound from a light blow; if quite thin, the blow will sound dead 
as if made on lead and no rebound, and metal be dented and easily driven in. 

Q. What is Corrosion the combined influence of. 

A. Air and moisture. 

Q. How may durability of vulcanizer be prolonged. 

A. By expelling air before vulcanizing, and keeping boiler dry and clean 
when not in use. 

Q. What powders are best for the packing to ensure easy separation of lid 
from boiler. 

A. Black lead, soapstone; but a small quantity of either, otherwise it will 
become porous or scale off; oil will become gummy and dry and hold the lid 

Q. Why should sufficient steam room always be left in boiler. 

A. If filled with water and no room left for expansion, a pressure will be 
developed much greater than that due to production of steam. 

Q. Is water elastic or inelastic. 

A. Inelastic. 

Q. What is the pressure per square inch in lbs. of steam at 320° F. 

A. "5 lbs. 

Q. What at 350° F. 

A. 120 lbs; and at 400°F., it is 235 lbs.; and at 500°, it is 661 lbs. 

Q. What is the effect when water closely confined is heated. 

A. Its expansion generates a force practically irresistible. 

Q. If vulcanizer is filled with water, how great may be the pressure to the 
inch without heating water to boiling point. 


A. 1,000 lbs. 

Q. How are thermometers set to ensure durability. 

A. In a mercury bath. 

Q. Should soft vulcanized rubber turn color and become harsh, what will re- 
store it. 

A. Boiling it for five minutes in a solution of one ounce of common soda to 
pint of water, and afterwards washing in clean water. 

Q. "Why are vulcanite dentures sometimes lined with gold. 

A. To prevent contact of rubber with mouth. 

Q. How is the gold applied. 

A. Either in one piece of heavy foil; or in a number of pieces, each over- 
lapping the other, the rubber being first packed and gold applied to surface 
of model and closely adapted. 

Q. How may Black Rubber be vulcanized. 

A. By using pure black rubber, and dry process; no steam allowed to enter 
packing chamber of New Mode Heater during process; the time required is 
five hours at 320° F. 

Q. How may Red Rubber be vulcanized in New Mode Heater. 

A. The flask is heated and packed in oven, the apparatus closed; the screws 
covered with the caps to make them steam tight; the steam valve raised to 
admit steam to packing chamber : raise heat to 320° F., and allow case to re- 
main in hot box at such temperature for one and a half hours. 


Q. What is the composition of Dental Celluloid. 

A. Pyroxylin (gun cotton) - 100 parts. 

Camphor - - - - - 40 " 

Oxide of Zinc - - - - - 2 " 

Vermillion - - - - - -0.6" 

Q. What is the strength of celluloid compared with that of Vulcanite. 

A. Celluloid is stronger than Vulcanite. 

Q. What has been suggested to remove the camphor odor. 

A. Placing set in solution of sulphuric acid, one part, water, two parts, 
for four or five hours. 

Q. What are the advantages of celluloid over vulcanite. 

A. A more natural gum color, and greater strength. 

Q. What are the disadvantages of Celluloid. 

A. If great care is not exercised in its moulding, change of shape; also' 
discoloration and porosity, if the hard outer surface (such as the moulding 
between metallic surfaces gives) is removed in the finishing process. 

Q. What is the principal solvent of celluloid. 

A. Spirits of camphor. 

Q. How is the celluloid prevented from adhering to plaster surface of 

A. By coating such surface with liquid silex, collodion, or oil. The use of 
a block-tin or bronze metal cast, or tin foil over plaster, prevents adhesion 
and gives a harder outer surface to the celluloid plate. 

Q. To secure the best practical results how should Celluloid be* worked. 


A. It should be moulded or pressed into form at the highest possible tern- 
perature that will not burn it; time given it to soften in screwing down flask, 
and the temperature of piece at once reduced when moulding is completed, 
and kept under pressure until cold. 

Q. What quality of Plaster of Paris should be used. 

A. A good quality of builder's plaster, which has the requisite strength, 
not the fine and highly calcined. 

Q. What are the three modes of moulding Celluloid. 

A. With steam, glycerine or oil, and by dry heat; the latter being the best. 

Q. The manipulations are similar to those of what other work, until 

A. Vulcanite. 

Q. How should the Plaster be mixed. 

A. Not too thin, and free from air-bubbles, adding the plaster to the water 
and allowing it to absorb all it will take up, making it as thick as can be 

Q. Is it admissible to use salt, or sulphate of potash in the plaster. 

A. No, they lessen the strength; if rapid setting is desirable, tepid water 
may be used without injury. 

Q. What are Celluloid Blanks. 

A. Prepared plates resembling the mouth in form and size, different series 
of which are made to select from — full upper and lower, and partial. 

Q. How should the "flasking" for celluloid be done. 

A. Mix the plaster as thick as it can be well poured, stir thoroughly and 
pour some into the flask (or impression when obtaining model), and shake 
down well. Then add more plaster to the batter remaining in bowl, 
until the mass is thick enough to build up; fill flask with this, and shake 
down thoroughly and solidly; so fill flask that it may be parted at tho edge of 
the wax base plate. 

Q. What form of Blank should be selected for the case on hand. 

A. One as near size of model as possible, not so wide as to permit of folding 
in from sides and thus form creases; just large enough to have an excess in 
every part. 

Q. What is the base-plate composed of. 

A. Thin paraffine, on which the vulcanite teeth are mounted in accordance 
with the articulation. 

Q. What is the manipulation from this point according to the "Seabury 

A. The fullness of gum, the festoons and undulations of the same are cur- 
ried out as if the case were ready for flasking, when a plaster matrix is made 
over labial surface of gum and tooth, which matrix is divided at the centre 
and the two halves taken off. The paraffine is chilled in cold water, dried, 
and each tooth is warmed and carefully removed from base plate. When all 
the teeth are taken off, the places they occupied are filled by dropping a small 
quantity of melted wax in each place so as to allow for a slight surplus. The 
case is then flashed without the teeth, and in separating sections of flask all 
the paraffine base plate is preserved; a celluloid blank is moulded between the 
plaster sections; the paraffine base plate is again returned to model (a metallic 
die is better than a plaster model), the teeth returned to their former places, 
and the case again waxed up as it was before. Thick tin foil (No. 60) is 

8 9 

accurately burnished over gum surface and teeth, and stippled with a serrat- 
ed plugger in imitation of gum; the edges of the tin foil beyond the edge of 
gum, are clipped with scissors and bent at right angles to gum surface; the 
case is flashed and ready for moulding. 

Q. How may celluloid blanks be changed in form and made smaller before 

A. By softening in boiling water and pressing into any shape, and trim- 
ming off excess with a sharp knife. 

Q. After separating the sections of flask what is to be done. 

A. Remove the base-plate of wax or paraffine by boiling water, and rub 
powdered soapstone over surface of model to prevent plaster from adhering to 

Q. How is the excess of celluloid provided for. 

A. By cutting a groove in the investment plaster of the section of flask con- 
taining the model, not less than one eighth of an inch from it. 

Q. How is the excess better provided for in case gum teeth are used. 

A. By trimming the plaster all around between model and edge of flask to 
about the thirty second of an inch, and holes drilled in plaster opposite to 
each joint of the teeth of one-eighth inch in diameter, to relieve the blocks 
from as much pressure as possible. 

Q. How is Celluloid moulded by steam. 

A. Fill boiler partly full of water, at least enough to cover ribs at bottom. 
Have screws well turned back, until plunger, when in position, will rest 
against top of boiler. Turn down cover securely ; see that the gland is turned 
back and that screw works freely. Let the sense of feeling be best guide as to 
how hard to screw. After placing flasks in position, turn down screw very 
gently with thumb and finger until it is felt to touch flask. Fill cup with 
alcohol and light it, or light gas; the valve will now blow off steam at 225° F. 
Until this occurs nothing else is to be done. As soon as steam escapes at 
valve, with upper portion suspended, the blank will soften and the screw be 
felt to yield to light pressure with thumb and finger. The upper weight 
should now be dropped down ; then turn screw very carefully, stopping when 
resistance is felt to increase; as soon as it yields, turn again, and follow up 
pressure as the heat rises and screw yields ; then increase pressure allowing 
time between the turns of screw; at the close of process the pressure should 
be considerable, all that can be made by screw. If operation is properly 
timed, the steam will blow off at time moulding is completed, and alcohol in 
lamp consumed; if other heat is used, such as gas, the flame should be suffi- 
cient to complete process in thirty to forty minutes, not longer. 

Q. How is Celluloid molded in Glycerine. 

A. Same method until flask is ready to be placed in tank; place blank in 
flask, put in screw-clamp and turn down screw until it touches flask lightly ; 
put all into tank, and pour enough glycerine in tank until it comes up to top 
of flask; one and a half pounds of g^eerine will sufBce. Then apply heat, and 
as soon as blank softens the screw will yield to gentle pressure, fat 225° F); 
turn screw very lightly at first, continuing as the celluloid is felt to yield, and 
increase to heavy pressure as the flask is closed. The heat should never rise 
above 2S0° F. Lard or oil may be used instead of glycerine, but latter is more 

Q. How may a celluloid case be cooled. 


A. As soon as screw is down, put out flame and blow off steam, and allow 
flask to become thoroughly cold before opening- and removing set; the cooling 
of flask can be hastened by cold water without injury, but case must be kept in 
flask-clamp until cold. 

Q. What precaution should be taken if celluloid is of extra thickness, or 
where shape of blank has been greatly changed. 

A. The flask containing it should be placed over register or near stove for 
half a day < >r more at a temperature of not over 140° F. 

Q. May Celluloid be molded with safety in "New-Mode Heater" at a greater 
temperature than in any other apparatus. 

A. Yes; as high as 310° or even 320° F., and to give better results against 
subsequent warping of plate. 

Q. What is the dry-heat method in using the "New mode Heater." 

A. Dry the investment either by raising temperature to 320° F., keeping hot 
bos dry, or by admitting steam to hot bos; if steam is up, either method may 
be employed; then remove flask from chamber, adjust blank, replace flask in 
oven immediately under screws; open screw cap a turn or two to allow gas to 
escape from hot bos; turn down large screw until it bears lightly on top of 
flask; close machine; and in five minutes molding may be commenced. First 
turn screws with thumb and finger, and when blank is properly softened use 
the smaller key -wrench; close flask gradually, stopping whenever resistance is 
too great. If temperature is 300° F., flask can be closed in 10 minutes; if 
blank is very thick mold more slowly, about 30 minutes. As soon as flask is 
closed, put out flame, open door, and allow machine to cool; if a lock-flask is 
used, it may be removed aud thoroughly cooled before opening machine, 
which is then ready for another set. 

Q. How is a Celluloid set finished. 

A. By use of sand paper, and scrapers; polished with pumice and water, 
finally using whiting or prepared chalk on a soft brush-wheel at high speed; 
or by rubbing with a soft cloth wet with camphor. 

Q. What precaution may be taken to keep celluloid blank clean. 

A. Clean hands, aud wrapping flask iu muslin cloth when molding. 

Q. What is the cause of porous celluloid plates. 

A. Overheating, an J want of pressure at proper time. 

Q. What causes the dark lines on celluloid plates. 

A. Using a blank too wide, or one too thin in centre, causing celluloid to 
press inward as well as outward and fold upon itself; or beginning the pres- 
sure too soon which tears blank. 

Q. How may the natural gum be imitated. 

A. By using tin f < >il over palatal and outer gum surfaces and "stippling" it. 
which is done by dotting the surface with a dull pointed instrument or ser- 
rated plugger. 

Q. How are eases of deep undercuts managed so as to avoid breaking 
plaster model. 

A. By so investing model in flask that the pressure in molding is brought 
to bear upon the mass of plaster supporting projection; in other words by 
elevating front surface of model where projection is located. 

Q. How may we add to or repair a broken celluloid plate. 

A. By perfectly cleaning surfaces to be united, forming dovetails on each 
side of crack or space in old plate, and moistening the edges with liquid cellu- 


loid or spirits of camphor, and molding a piece of celluloid into crack or space. 

Q. How may a broken tooth be replaced. 

A. By removing all of broken tooth without disturbing outline of socket, 
heat a large burnisher in boiling water and enlarge the hole; insert the new 
tooth; pour plaster over face of tooth to secure it, and cover bulge made in 
celluloid by enlarging the hole for new tooth, with heavy tin foil. Heat an in- 
strument in hot water and force the celluloid firmly about pins of tooth; drop 
cold water on it while holding the hot instrument against it. Another 
method is to proceed as just described up to point of using hot instrument, 
then fasten tooth with adhesive wax and invest in tlask; after separating the 
sections; remove wax and place a small piece of celluloid over inner surface of 
tooth, and mold in heater. 

Q. How may a tooth be removed from a celluloid set. 

A. Hold outside surface of tooth in name of an alcohol lamp until heat 
softens celluloid around pins of tooth. 

Q. How may a continuous gum of celluloid be attached to a vulcanite plate. 

A. Use continuous gum teeth (or those with long necks), set them up in 
wax in usual manner, leaving outside of roots exposed; place a softened thin 
strip of wax to portion of wax plate representing gum; finish palatal surface, 
and invest in flask; remove wax, pack with rubber and vulcanize; remove from 
flask when rubber plate will present a vacancy to be filled with celluloid at 
portion representing outer surface of gum; fill this vacancy or space with 
paraffine and wax by melting and dropping it in, and carve it into desired form 
of gum; then invest in one section of flask with teeth upward and raised in 
such a manner that the upper section of flask may be removed without drag- 
ging; imbed in plaster to rim, pouring it over palatal surface, covering crowns 
and filling interstices between necks of teeth, but leaving their outer surfaces 
exposed; then after it has set, pour more plaster around inner edge of flask 
section forming a ridge, leaving a groove between it and plate; finish invest- 
ing, and remove wax away from groove and teeth with boiling water. Select 
a proper blank, and saw off its outer rim, which is softened in boiling water, 
and with a cloth pressed closely about teeth and held in place until it has 
hardened; join the two sections of flask and place in oven of "New Mode 
Heater," and when temperature of 280° F. is reached the flask is closed. 

Q. What advantages have metal casts or models over plaster models. 

A. Better results are obtained by molding either vulcanite or celluloid upon 
metal, no danger of fracture, and palatal surface of plate comes out with a 
hard polish. 

Q. How is this metal model or cast obtained. 

A. The same as a zinc die for swaging; composed of block tin or fusible 

Q. How may it be formed so as to render its removal from hardened cel- 
luloid plate easy. 

A. By pouring metal into a sand model, and allowing it to remain only 
long enough to cool on outside; then, turning it over, letting all the metal re- 
maining molten run out, and thus obtaining a thin shell which is cut all round 
ridge with a fine saw leaving only enough connection to hold parts together; 
plaster is poured into this hollow shell and the model completed. To remove 
it from hardened plate, the edges are crushed in between a vise. Another 
method is to form a plaster core of cross shape, and sinking this into the 


molten metal of the cast before it has cooled, thus dividing the cast into four 
sections which may be crushed together in a vise. 

Q. How are metallic clasps and backings attached to vulcanite and celluloid 

A. By having the ends, or, in case of clasps, the additions, extend into the 
wax base-plate, supported by the plaster, after these ends are bent at more or 
less of a right angle to surface of cast or model; the vulcanite (or celluloid) is 
packed under and over these extensions. 

Q. How is liquid celluloid made. 

A. By dissolving pieces of celluloid in spirits of camphor. 








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